2013年8月30日星期五

Dernières CompTIA IK0-002 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: IK0-002
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (I-NET+ CERTIFICATION)
Questions et réponses: 221 Q&As

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NO.1 Which executes on server side?
A. CGI
B. C++
C. JavaScript
D. VBG
Answer: A

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NO.2 How are cookies stored?
A. Unencrypted text file on client
B. Unencrypted text file on server
C. Encrypted text file on client
D. Encrypted text file on server
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the default port for SMTP?
A. 21
B. 25
C. 80
D. 110
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which supports animation of graphics on web?
A. GIF87A
B. GIF89A
C. jpeg
D. png
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which DNS record tells you mail servers?
A. PTR
B. RP
C. CNAME
D. MX
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which command matches IP address to MAC address?
A. arp
B. ipconfig
C. winipcfg
D. nbtstat
Answer: A

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NO.7 What network device enables you to communicate with other systems using different protocol?
A. Router
B. Hub
C. Bridge
D. Gateway
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which supports encryption?
A. UDP
B. TCP
C. PPP
D. SLIP
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is the default port for FTP?
A. 21
B. 25
C. 80
D. 110
Answer: A

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NO.10 What UART chip is needed to provide a modem connection of 115200 bps?
A. 85.xx
B. 65.xx
C. 100.xx
D. 165.xx
Answer: D

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NO.11 You have a Remote access server (RAS) used by your colleagues working at home. You are
concerned about the security. What should you do to have a better security measure?
A. Installing firewall
B. Change password
C. Use SSL for the connection
D. Enable call back
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which is not a required HTML Tag?
A. <TEXTAREA>
B. <Body>
C. <Head>
D. <HTML>
Answer: A

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NO.13 Your company has connection with the business partners. What is it called?
A. Intranet
B. Extranet
C. Internet
D. Private network
Answer: B

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NO.14 How many 64 Kbps channels are in a ISDN?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 8
D. 12
Answer: B

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NO.15 What are the best types of documents to distribute using Electronic Data Interchange (EDI)?
A. Memos
B. Orders and invoices
C. Reports
Answer: B

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NO.16 When a new idea is being considered for adoption regarding the Internet, it is first posted as an:
A. FAQ
B. RFC
C. PDP
D. PDF
Answer: B

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NO.17 What TCP/IP protocol can be used for directory access?
A. LDAP
B. HTTP
C. FTP
D. NNTP
Answer: A

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NO.18 When a system is sent ICMP echo requests repeatedly, it is a
A. PING attack
B. SYN attack
C. SPOOFING
D. Telnet attack
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which command checks the current open TCP/IP connections?
A. netstat
B. Ping
C. ipconfig
D. winipcfg
Answer: A

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NO.20 What is the default port for HTTP?
A. 21
B. 25
C. 80
D. 110
Answer: C

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NO.21 What uses vector graphics to display web images?
A. Flash
B. Shockwave
C. Real Media D. QuickTime VR
Answer: A

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NO.22 Which one has speeds off 51.84Mbps?
A. T1
B. T3
C. OC1
D. OC3
Answer: C

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NO.23 Within a DNS record where can you find the name of the administrator.
A. PTR
B. SOA
C. CNAME
D. MX
Answer: B

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NO.24 What is the default port for Telnet?
A. 21
B. 23
C. 25
D. 80
Answer: B

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NO.25 What TCP/IP utility is used to see current contents of a packet on your computer?
A. tracert
B. protocol analyzer
C. ping
D. ipconfig
Answer: B

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NO.26 Your company has heterogeneous systems (different operating systems/machines). You want to have
a better security and you want your company to issue certificates for user communication. What server
should you implement?
A. Directory server
B. Certificate server C. Authentication server
D. Telnet server
Answer: B

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NO.27 Which device cannot be infected with a virus?
A. Router
B. Hub
C. Gateway D. NIC
Answer: B

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NO.28 What do you call the first DNS server?
A. First
B. Master
C. Slave
D. Primary
Answer: D

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NO.29 Web graphics 40mm x 60mm. Which format do you load to achieve the fastest download when user
browses?
A. 72dpi
B. 98dpi
C. 100dpi
D. 300dpi
Answer: A

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NO.30 What do you need on your e-commerce system to process credit card transactions?
A. Online catalog
B. Virtual shopping carts/Checkouts
C. Merchant system
D. Intranet
Answer: C

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CompTIA FC0-U11 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: FC0-U11
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Functionality Exam)
Questions et réponses: 112 Q&As

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NO.1 You are working with a team that will be bringing in new computers to a sales department at a company.
The sales team would like to keep not only their old files, but system settings as well on the new PC's.
What should you do?
A. Do a system backup (complete) on each old machine, then restore it onto the new machines.
B. Copy the files and the Windows Registry to a removable media then copy it onto the new machines.
C. Use the User State Migration tool to move the system settings and files to the new machines.
D. Use the Disk Management tool to move everything to the new computer.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following is a file management tool?
A. Windows Explorer
B. Device Manager
C. MSCONFIG
D. Defrag
Answer: A

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NO.3 You are working in a Windows network environment. Which of the following accounts/groups have
many advanced permissions not needed by occasional users? Each correct answer represents a part of
the solution. Choose two.
A. Guest
B. Standard user
C. Administrator
D. Power Users
Answer: C, D

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NO.4 Which of the following statements about a smart card are true? Each correct answer represents a
complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is a device that contains a microprocessor and permanent memory.
B. It is used to securely store public and private keys for log on , e-mail signing and encryption, and file
encryption.
C. It is a device that routes data packets between computers in different networks.
D. It is a device that works as an interface between a computer and a network.
Answer: A, B

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NO.5 You need to alter disk partitions in Windows XP prior to upgrade to Windows Vista. Which Windows
utility should you use for this?
A. Disk Defragmenter
B. The Registry
C. Disk Management
D. System Configuration Utility
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following is used by Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) to provide data encryption?
A. IDEA
B. TKIP
C. RSA
D. RC4
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following is a circuit board that is used to extend slots for expansion cards and provides the
ability to connect additional expansion cards to the computer?
A. Audio/modem riser
B. Secure Digital (SD) card
C. Riser card
D. Communication and Networking Riser (CNR)
Answer: C

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NO.8 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has a Windows 2000
domain-based network. A user working on a Windows 2000 Professional client computer reports that he
is unable to access some files on the hard disk. However, he is able to successfully log on and access
other files. What should Mark do to resolve the issue?
A. Instruct the user to log off and log on again.
B. Enable the user account on the computer.
C. Check the file permissions on the hard disk drive.
D. Check the hard disk drive using the SCANDISK utility.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following statements does the UK Parliament state in the Computer Misuse Act 1990?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Unauthorized access to the computer material is punishable by 6 months imprisonment or a fine "not
exceeding level 5 on the standard scale".
B. Personal data shall be adequate, relevant, and not excessive in relation to the purpose or purposes for
which they are processed.
C. Appropriate technical and organizational measures shall be taken against unauthorized or unlawful
processing of personal data and against accidental loss or destruction of, or damage
D. Unauthorized modification of computer material is subject to the same sentences as section 2
offences.
Answer: A, D

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NO.10 Which of the following identifies a wireless network and is sometimes referred to as a "network name"?
A. BSSID
B. SSID
C. BSS
D. IBSS
Answer: B

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NO.11 You are selecting memory to put in to a laptop. Which of the following types of RAM chips would you
most likely select?
A. 72 PIN
B. 240 PIN
C. 184 PIN
D. 144 PIN
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following parts of the computer is built-in to the motherboard?
A. Joystick
B. Mouse
C. Sound card
D. CD-ROM drive
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following is designed to infiltrate or damage a computer without the consent of the owner.?
A. Shareware
B. Malware
C. Freeware
D. Stealware
Answer: B

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NO.14 What is the maximum cable length to connect a device to an IEEE 1394a port?
A. 12 meters
B. 5 meters
C. 4.5 meters
D. 10 meters
Answer: C

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NO.15 You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has a wireless local area network
(WLAN). You want to prevent your wireless access point from being accessed by intruders. What will you
do to accomplish the task?
A. Implement auditing.
B. Implement WEP.
C. Implement SSL.
D. Implement IPSec.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following refers to the data rate supported by a network connection or interface?
A. Spam
B. Preboot Execution Environment (PXE)
C. Bandwidth
D. Branding
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which of the following slots on a motherboard are best for a video card? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. PCI
B. PCIe
C. EISA
D. AGP
Answer: B, D

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NO.18 Which of the following types of parental controls is used to limit access to the Internet contents?
A. Monitoring control
B. Usage management tool
C. Content filter control
D. Bandwidth control
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following cache levels are implemented on microprocessors? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Level 5 (L5) cache
B. Level 2 (L2) cache
C. Level 0 (L0) cache
D. Level 1 (L1) cache
Answer: B, D

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NO.20 A customer has come to you wanting upgrade the video card in his laptop. What would you
recommend?
A. A PCI Express card
B. Upgrade is not possible
C. A PCMCIA card
D. An AGP Card
Answer: B

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L'avènement de la certification CompTIA pratique d'examen LX0-102 questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: LX0-102
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Linux+ [Powered by LPI] Exam 2)
Questions et réponses: 340 Q&As

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NO.1 When no WINS server is present, all name registrations and lookups are done by UDP _______.
A. broadcast
B. multicast
C. unicast
D. None of the above.
Answer: A

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NO.2 The response times on a Samba server are gradually increasing, so it is decided to experiment with
various socket options in smb.conf. Which of the following are valid values for this parameter? (Choose
THREE correct answers)
A. TCP_NODELAY
B. SO_NOBROADCAST
C. SO_TXBUF
D. IPTOS_LOWDELAY
E. SO_KEEPALIVE
Answer: A, D, E

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NO.3 Which of the following should be backed up before a Samba version upgrade? (Choose TWO correct
answers.)
A. Libraries
B. TDB files
C. Configuration files
D. Binaries
E. winbindd_privileged directory
Answer: B, C

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NO.4 Which port must be open in a firewall to allow access to rdesktop?
A. 3389
Answer: A

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NO.5 What DHCP option can be set on a ISC DHCP server to tell NETBIOS clients that the WINS server
has the IP address 192.168.1.2?
A. option netbios-wins-servers 192.168.1.2;
B. option wins-netbios-servers 192.168.1.2;
C. option wins-name-servers 192.168.1.2;
D. option netbios-name-servers 192.168.1.2;
Answer: D

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NO.6 Users are reporting that they can access all user home directories on the server in addition to their
own. What value must be added to the valid users parameter in the [homes] section of smb.conf to
disallow this behaviour? (Enter only the required value, do not include the parameter name)
A. %S
Answer: A

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NO.7 The following output is generated when trying to obtain tickets from the Kerberos realm: # kinit
user@SUB.DOMAIN.BIZ Password for user@SUB.DOMAIN.BIZ kinit(v5): Clock skew too great while
getting initial credentials How can the problem be fixed? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. ntpdate domaincontroller; hwclock -systohc
B. kinit -t
C. killall -HUP krb5kdc
D. Modify the time_sync value in the kdc.conf file.
E. Modify the clockskew value in the krb5.conf file.
Answer: A, E

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NO.8 Which command from the Samba Suite is used to retrieve information on the mapping between
NetBIOS names and IP addresses?
A. NMBLOOKUP
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which node type will use only NetBIOS broadcast requests using UDP broadcast?
A. b-node (type 0x01)
B. p-node (type 0x02)
C. m-node (type 0x04)
D. h-node (type 0x08)
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following development libraries are used to make Samba compatible with ADS? (Select
TWO correct answers.)
A. Kerberos
B. CUPS
C. LDAP
D. Win32
E. IMAP
Answer: A, C

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NO.11 Which are the FOUR parameters (in the correct order) to be set in the name resolve order directive, to
use the following name resolution order?
1. Use lmhosts file entries 2 Use a server especified in the 'wins server' directive
Use broadcast
Use default DNS lookup Answer:
A. LMHOSTSWINSBCASTHOST
Answer: A

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NO.12 In which section of the smb.conf configuration file is the logon script declared?
A. [homes]
B. [netlogon]
C. [global]
D. [profiles]
Answer: C

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NO.13 What is the meaning of a NetBIOS hybrid node (h-node) type client?
A. Client performs a broadcast and does not query WINS.
B. Client queries WINS first, and then broadcasts.
C. Client broadcasts first, and then queries WINS.
D. Client only queries WINS and does not broadcast.
E. Client only queries lmhost local file.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which port is used for "NetBIOS-less" SMB traffic? Answer:
A. 445
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following commands would you run to add your machine to an NT4 domain?
A. net rpc join -S PDC -UAdministrator%password
B. net ads join -s PDC -UAdministrator%password
C. net rpc join -s PDC -UAdministrator%password
D. net ads join -W PDC -nAdministrator%password
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which of the following statements are true when creating NETBIOS names? (Select TWO correct
answers.)
A. NETBIOS names can only use alphanumeric characters.
B. You can use a '.' in a NETBIOS name.
C. You can use an '_' (underscore) in a NETBIOS name.
D. NETBIOS names must be UPPERCASE
E. NETBIOS names can be a maximum of 32 characters
Answer: B, C

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NO.17 Which of the following is true about the following share access properties? (Choose TWO correct
answers.) [projects]path = /data/projects read only = noadmin users = timo, taki, +managers
A. +managers will be resolved as a Winbind group.
B. The timo and taki users can manipulate files regardless of the file system permissions.
C. +managers will be resolved as a Unix group.
D. +managers is a builtin default Samba group.
E. The "admin users" can be applied only to print shares.
Answer: B, C

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NO.18 Which smb.conf configuration keyword determines the hostname resolution order?
A. use ads
B. name resolve order
C. use nsswitch.conf
D. use resolv.conf
Answer: B

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NO.19 .How is VFS (Virtual File System) support enabled in Samba?
A. Samba does not support VFS.
B. Compile and load vfs.ko kernel module.
C. Compile and load vfs.ko and its dependent smbfs kernel modules.
D. Compile and load pvfs.ko kernel module.
E. Compile Samba with VFS module support.
Answer: E

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NO.20 By default, Windows XP requires that passwords on your Samba server:
A. Do not exceed 32 characters.
B. Contain both numbers and letters.
C. Are encrypted.
D. Are changed every 30 days.
Answer: C

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NO.21 The _____________ parameter in the smb.conf file will set hidden files in Linux to also be hidden in
windows. (Please specify ONLY the parameter with no value assignment.)
A. HIDEDOTFILES
Answer: A

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NO.22 When setting up roaming profiles in a Windows network which includes Windows 98 desktops, which
Samba parameter must be set?
A. logon drive
B. logon home
C. logon path
D. logon script
Answer: B

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NO.23 .A ______ server stores NetBIOS names and IP addresses of SMB/CIFS clients.
A. WINS
Answer: A

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NO.24 Which of the following commands will mount a remote Samba share when the user is Winuser and the
password is somepass?
A. mount -t smbfs -o username=Winuser,password=somepass //SERVER/share /media/sambashare
B. mount -t smbfs -o username=Winuser,password=somepass \\SERVER\share
/media/sambashare
C. mount -t smbfs -o Winuser%somepass //SERVER/share /media/sambashare
D. mount -t smbfs -o username=Winuser%somepass //SERVER/share /media/sambashare
Answer: A

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NO.25 Which command would create a machine account in Active Directory under the
Computers\BusinessUnit\Department\Servers organizational unit?
A.net rpc join -m localhost -ldap="ldap.ldapserver.com:Computers\BusinessUnit\Department\Servers"
B.rpcclient -c "join Computers\BusinessUnit\Department\Servers"
C.net ads join ou="Computers\BusinessUnit\Department\Servers"
D.net ads join "Computers\BusinessUnit\Department\Servers"
Answer: D

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NO.26 After installing a network with one Samba server and several clients, users are complaining that they
receive an Unable to browse the network error when trying to visit a public share. What is the most likely
cause of this?
A. The user entered the wrong username and/or password.
B. The nmbd process is not running on the Samba server.
C. The user hasn't mapped the share to a local drive letter yet.
D. The Samba server is not configured as a Domain Master Browser.
Answer: B

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NO.27 In /etc/smbldap-tools/ which file contains the DN and password for the LDAP manager?
A. smbldap.conf
B. ldap.conf
C. smbldap_bind.conf
D. slapd.conf
Answer: C

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NO.28 There are multiple network interfaces on a server. Which parameters must you set in smb.conf to limit
on which interfaces Samba will accept connections? (Choose TWO correct answers)
A. listen interfaces
B. bind interfaces only
C. interfaces
D. listen address
Answer: B, C

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NO.29 It is desired to restrict access to the [IPC$] share to one specific machine. The setting hosts allow =
192.168.0.3 is added to the share configuration. Later it is discovered that other workstations may still
access it. What setting was forgotten in the share configuration? (Enter the parameter and any options or
values)
A.HOSTSDENY=0.0.0.0/0,HOSTSDENY=0.0.0.0/0,HOSTSDENY=0.0.0.0/0,HOSTSDENY=0.0.0.0/
0,DENYHOSTS=0
Answer: A

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NO.30 When migrating files from a Windows server A to a Samba server B with the command 'net rpc share
migrate files -S A -destination=B -acls -attrs -U administrator', some files that originally belong only to a
Windows group (no user) will generate errors during the migration. Which option in smb.conf will force
such files to be mapped to the correct UNIX UID and GID?
A. use acl = yes
B. map group acls = yes
C. force unknown acl user = yes
D. inherit acls = no
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: CAS-001
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner)
Questions et réponses: 272 Q&As

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NO.1 You work as a Network Administrator for uCertify Inc. You want the clients and servers in your
organization to be able to communicate in a way that prevents eavesdropping and tampering of data on
the Internet. Which of the following will you use to accomplish the task?
A. EFS
B. WEP
C. SSL
D. MS-CHAP
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following stages are involved in the successful implementation of a collaboration platform?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. Ongoing collaboration solution design
B. Federated identity management
C. Platform implementation
D. Product and service integration
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 Which of the following components of a VoIP network is frequently used to bridge video conferencing
connections?
A. MCU
B. Videoconference station
C. IP Phone
D. Call agent
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following protocols is used extensively in communication and entertainment systems that
involve streaming media, such as telephony, video teleconference applications and web-based push to
talk features?
A. SIP
B. MGCP
C. H.323
D. RTP
Answer: D

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NO.5 SDLC phases include a minimum set of security tasks that are required to effectively incorporate
security in the system development process. Which of the following are the key security activities for the
development/acquisition phase?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Prepare initial documents for system certification and accreditation
B. Conduct the risk assessment and use the results to supplement the baseline security controls
C. Determination of privacy requirements
D. Initial delineation of business requirements in terms of confidentiality, integrity, and availability
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 Which of the following is the most secure authentication scheme and uses a public key cryptography
and digital certificate to authenticate a user?
A. Form-based authentication
B. Basic authentication
C. Digest authentication
D. Certificate-based authentication
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which technology can be used to help ensure the efficient transport of VoIP traffic?
A. DNS
B. QoS
C. H.323
D. RSTP
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following security practices are included in the Implementation phase of the Security
Development Lifecycle (SDL)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Establish Design Requirements
B. Perform Static Analysis
C. Use Approved Tools
D. Execute Incident Response Plan
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.9 You work as a Network Administrator for uCertify Inc. You want to allow some users to access a
particular program on the computers in the network. What will you do to accomplish this task?
A. Apply remote access policies
B. Apply NTFS permissions
C. Apply group policies
D. Apply account policies
Answer: C

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NO.10 Collaboration platform offers a set of software components and services that enable users to
communicate, share information, and work together for achieving common business goals. What are the
core elements of a collaboration platform?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.
A. Product and service integration
B. Real-time communication
C. Change management
D. Team collaboration
E. Messaging
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.11 Which of the following is frequently used by administrators to verify security policies of their networks
and by attackers to identify running services on a host with the view to compromise it?
A. Fuzzer
B. Port scanner
C. MegaPing
D. UDP scan
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following are the functions of a network security administrator? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Backing up the files
B. Writing computer software
C. Maintaining and implementing a firewall
D. Developing, maintaining, and implementing IT security
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.13 In which of the following activities an organization identifies and prioritizes technical, organizational,
procedural, administrative, and physical security weaknesses?
A. Social engineering
B. Vulnerability assessment
C. White box testing
D. Penetration testing
Answer: B

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NO.14 In which of the following attacks does an attacker intercept call-signaling SIP message traffic and
masquerade as the calling party to the called party and vice-versa?
A. Call tampering
B. Man-in-the-middle
C. Eavesdropping
D. Denial of Service
Answer: B

CompTIA   CAS-001   CAS-001   CAS-001   CAS-001

NO.15 You work as a Network Administrator for uCertify Inc. You need to conduct network reconnaissance,
which is carried out by a remote attacker attempting to gain information or access to a network on which it
is not authorized/allowed.
What will you do?
A. Use a SuperScan
B. Use a netcat utility
C. Use a vulnerability scanner
D. Use an idle scan
Answer: C

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NO.16 You need to ensure that a session key derived from a set of long-term public and private keys will not be
compromised if one of the private keys is compromised in the future?
A. Perfect forward secrecy
B. Secure socket layer
C. Secure shell
D. Security token
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which of the following terms is about communicating the user's need and ability to communicate, and
the medium through which that communication may occur?
A. Data sharing
B. Presence
C. Instant messaging
D. Audio conferencing
Answer: B

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NO.18 The Security Development Lifecycle (SDL) consists of various security practices that are grouped under
seven phases. Which of the following security practices are included in the Requirements phase.?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Incident Response Plan
B. Create Quality Gates/Bug Bars
C. Attack Surface Analysis/Reduction
D. Security and Privacy Risk Assessment
Answer: B,D

CompTIA   CAS-001   certification CAS-001   CAS-001

NO.19 Which of the following is a declarative access control policy language implemented in XML and a
processing model, describing how to interpret the policies?
A. SAML
B. SOAP
C. SPML
D. XACML
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which of the following is an XML-based framework developed by OASIS and used to exchange user,
resource and service provisioning information between cooperating organizations?
A. SOAP
B. SAML
C. SPML
D. XACML
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: SGO-001
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Storage+ Powered by SNIA)
Questions et réponses: 250 Q&As

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NO.1 Two servers have been connected to a SAN with redundant fabrics and the zone configuration needs to
be changed. How can you safely change the zone configuration?
A. Save the current zone configuration to disk, modify it and apply it to both fabrics simultaneously to
avoid segmentation.
B. Modify the zone configuration on one fabric, test it, and then modify the zone configuration on the
second fabric.
C. Modify the zone configuration on one fabric, test it, and then copy the zone configuration to the second
fabric.
D. Modify the zone configuration on both fabrics at the same time, enable them simultaneously to avoid
segmentation.
Answer: B

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NO.2 A two fabric merge has failed leaving you with segmented fabrics. Which could be the the cause of the
segmented fabrics?
A. unique domain Ids
B. identical zone names
C. timeouts set to equal values
D. non-compatible interoperability modes
Answer: B

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NO.3 You have a single fabric with four servers connecting to an edge switch in a core edge configuration with
single 2Gb/s ISLs to the core. Each server has an average throughput requirement of 40MB/s. Under
which circumstance would you need to add a second ISL?
A. to provide a redundant path
B. to avoid congestion on the ISL
C. to separate out FSPF updates
D. to provide a management path
Answer: A

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NO.4 You are the system administrator of a medium-sized manufacturing company. The chief executive
officer (CEO) is concerned about business continuity in case of a disaster. He constituted a project team
to develop a business continuity and disaster recovery solution. The team is discussing online backup
strategies. What affects time-to-create and incremental update of a copy-on-write snapshot?
A. number of files
B. number of LUNs
C. size of snap volume
D. size of LUN
Answer: D

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NO.5 An application administrator seeks to improve the I/O performance of the server's SAN-attached
storage. Which HBA parameter setting change can affect the performance?
A. Queue Depth
B. PCI Connection Type
C. NL-Port Mode
D. SCSI ID Mapping
Answer: A

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NO.6 Your customer has upgraded to faster tape technology and the backup is now taking longer. No other
changes have been made. What is a possible cause of the performance degradation?
A. tape buffer overload
B. hardware compression
C. backup server cannot sustain required throughput
D. serpentine recording changed to helical scan technology
Answer: C

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NO.7 The SAN audit reports that there is a single fabric in a full mesh topology. Which three (3) benefits result
from migrating to dual fabrics with full mesh topologies? (Choose three.)
A. less inter-switch links
B. simplifies manageability
C. protection from human error
D. reduction in maintenance activity
E. decreased maintenance disruption
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.8 University IT provides shared Fibre Channel storage services. All storage subsystems and fibre
channel switches are located in the secure campus datacenter. Each college and department provides
their own systems and staff. Central IT provides fabric, storage and backup administration. Which security
mechanism is most important in this Fibre Channel infrastructure?
A. FCPAP
B. link encryption
C. switch authentication
D. port authentication
Answer: D

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NO.9 What two (2) benefits does SCSI Command Tag Queueing provide? (Choose two.)
A. allows I/O requests to be queued to the device
B. determines the most efficient way to order & process commands
C. tags I/O requests so they can be executed first in first out
D. allows SCSI I/O throughput to equal rates of fibre channel
E. determines queue depth position
Answer: A,B

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NO.10 A server administrator notices when a specific server is re-booted its SAN storage is sometimes visible
and sometimes it is not. After examining the SAN switch logs, no FLOGI message has been received on
that port. Which HBA parameter is a most likely cause?
A. Port Link/Speed is set to Autonegotiate.
B. WWPN reset timeout is set too low.
C. R_A_TOV does not match.
D. HBA Port Type is set to "E-Port"
Answer: A

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NO.11 A production cluster is attached to redundant disk fabrics and a tape fabric. Each cluster member has
access to twelve (12) TB of RAID 5 production storage and twelve (12) TB of RAID 0 local replica
accessed through eight HBAs single initiator zoned to sixteen storage ports on one storage subsystem.
The tape fabric includes one connection to each server and connections to four (4) 1Gb FC to SCSI
gateways connected to ten (10) LTO II (35MB/s) tape drives. The standby cluster member performs
multi-threaded backups using the local replica. All HBAs and ports are 2Gb/s. If the recovery time is equal
to backup time, where is the bottleneck?
A. Tape HBA
B. Disk HBAs
C. Tape Drives
D. FC to SCSI Gateway
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which two (2) are advantages of ISL over-subscription? (Choose two.)
A. efficient ISL bandwidth utilization
B. lowers cost-per-port per installation
C. higher performance per ISL
D. enables zoning simplicity
E. more available F_Ports
Answer: A,E

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NO.13 Which set of SCSI components are required to support SCSI command tag queuing?
A. adapter, adapter driver, device, device driver
B. adapter, device, device driver
C. adapter, device driver, controller, controller firmware
D. device, device driver
Answer: A

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NO.14 The storage administrator has a request to add more storage to support added features on an
application. Which two (2) steps must be taken for the application to recognize the added storage?
(Choose two.)
A. re-scan the SCSI bus
B. enable array re-scanning
C. configure LUN masking
D. zone the host to the subsystem port
E. increase the HBA time out value
Answer: A,C

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NO.15 A storage configuration was created which stores large amounts of infrequently used documents. The
storage implementation is based on serial attached SCSI (SAS) and an edge expander. Almost all ports
are utilized, and a second edge expander will be installed. What is required to connect SATA devices to
the SAS domain?
A. SAS-SATA adapter
B. SAS-SATA protocol converter
C. cable with two SATA connectors
D. cable with a SAS and a SATA connector
Answer: C

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NO.16 What enables a virtual machine to have a unique World Wide Port Name?
A. Address Replacement Protocol
B. Virtual Machine Address Translation
C. N_Port ID Virtualization
D. extended WWID Architecture
Answer: C

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NO.17 After a company experienced a localized disaster, the Business Continuance Plan was reviewed. The
plan was revised to include a Recovery Time Objective (RTO) of four (4) hours and a Recovery Point
Object (RPO) of one hour. What two (2) processes must be implemented to support this requirement?
(Choose two.)
A. mirrored snapshots of data and applications
B. backup tapes recovered from offsite storage
C. data snapshots from the previous day
D. operating system and application reinstallation media
E. hot or warm site
Answer: A,E

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NO.18 A customer has a database server that processes a great deal of data very quickly. They have identified
a bottleneck in the storage subsystem and requested a change to the RAID configuration. How would you
configure the new RAID group? (Choose two.)
A. Stripe across 7200 rpm drives
B. Stripe across 15K rpm drives
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 1+0
E. RAID 5
Answer: B,D

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NO.19 The customer has an existing fabric switches installed from one manufacturer. They have decided to
add a redundant fabric using switches from a different manufacturer. Interoperability is their main concern.
What is important when considering interoperability in the SAN?
A. switch interoperability mode
B. HBA firmware/driver code
C. zone naming convention
D. virtualization engine
Answer: D

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NO.20 Last month, you successfully merged two (2) local SAN islands into a single core/edge fabric topology
and connected storage devices to the core switches. Performance benchmarks were met or exceeded. In
recent days, server administrators have documented a slow down in performance as I/O demands have
increased. Storage administrators report that all storage ports are under-utilized. What is the most likely
explanation?
A. conflicts between SAN routing protocols
B. storage port buffer credit limits have restricted I/O capabilities
C. multiple process login failures
D. over utilization of one or more ISLs
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: BI0-210
Nom d'Examen: COGNOS (IBM Cognos 8 BI Professional)
Questions et réponses: 66 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following BEST describes the relationship or differences between Iterative Approach and
Cognos SIM?
A. The Iterative Approach is a specific technique used to iterate through the Design phase.
B. The Iterative Approach is a series of steps defined in the Analysis and Development phases of Cognos
SIM.
C. The Iterative Approach is a philosophy of development while Cognos SIM is a collection of tasks,
documents, and techniques to guide development.
D. Cognos SIM is the current Cognos development standard and is intended to replace the Iterative
Approach for development of BI applications.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following MOST clearly states the value of using a methodology?
A. It provides a philosophy of development that maximizes return on investment.
B. It helps consultants progress in a systematic way to insure all critical steps are addressed.
C. It helps project managers estimate the cost and effort in developing a solution.
D. It ensures that early mistakes are avoided in developing a solution.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Are you an:
A. IBM Customer
B. IBM Partner
C. IBM Employee
Answer: A

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NO.4 If you are successful with this exam, do you agree to have your name made available to relevent IBM
personnel for project staffing?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following is a significant cause of failure when using the technology-focused approach to
BI Application development?
A. Users often have difficulty understanding new technology.
B. New technology often contains internal flaws and errors that affect the delivered solution.
C. The solution is focused on a single subject area.
D. Developers often focus on just the data.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 1D0-51B
Nom d'Examen: CIW (CIW v5 Foundations SDF Module)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 Maria and her team are beginning to redesign a corporate Web site. The company owners want to keep
the site's navigation icons at the top of each page, and enable linked pages to appear in another section
of the same browser window. Which XHTML technique does Maria suggest?
A.Pop-up JavaScript windows
B.Frameset layout with upper and lower frames
C.List elements <li> enclosed by <ol> container tags
D.Navigation icons in the top row of a table page structure
Answer:B

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NO.2 Which of the following XHTML elements is always placed within the <head> section?
A.<html>
B.<body>
C.<meta>
D.<!DOCTYPE>
Answer:C

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NO.3 James created an XHTML table to show his schedule for each week of the month. He organized the
table in a standard calendar format, so that each day from Sunday to Saturday is the header for a vertical
column, and each week of days is displayed horizontally as a row. Each scheduled activity appears in the
table cell appropriate for the day it occurs. James wants to merge two table cells into one cell to show the
IT Business Conference that he will attend from Tuesday to Wednesday in the third week. Which tag
should James use for this merged cell?
A.<td colspan=?? IT Business Conference </td>
B.<td rowspan=?? IT Business Conference </td>
C.<th rowspan=?? IT Business Conference </th>
D.<table colspan=?? IT Business Conference </table>
Answer:A

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NO.4 Consider the following XHTML code from a Web form:
How often do you want to be updated?<br/>
<select name="Frequency">
<option> Once a week </option>
<option> Once or twice a month </option>
<option> Once a month </option>
<option value="NotAtAll" > Never </option>
</select>
Which type of Web form field will this code create?
A.A group of check boxes
B.A group of radio buttons
C.A single-option select list
D.A scrolling multiple-select list
Answer:C

CIW   1D0-51B   1D0-51B   1D0-51B   1D0-51B

NO.5 You are using Cascading Style Sheets (CSS) to format your Web site. You created an external style
sheet to apply the same look and feel to all your pages. Which tag will you use on each page to reference
your external style sheet?
A.<link>
B.<style>
C.<body>
D.<span>
Answer:A

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