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Code d'Examen: ST0-153
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec PGP Universal Server 3.2 Technical Assessment)
Questions et réponses: 67 Q&As

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NO.1 How did you add Internal Users to the PGP Universal Server?
A.Receiving email
B.Installing the server
C.Sending email
D.All of the above
Answer:C

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NO.2 How do the encrypt and sign buttons interact with policy?
A.They bypass it
B.They do not bypass it, they use the Standalone chain
C.They only work when the server is online and the Outbound policy rule has been enabled
D.None of the above are true
Answer:D

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8.How do you create an ADK?
A.It is automatically created and added to the server upon installation
B.You purchase one from PGP Corporation
C.From the Organization Keys tab
D.From PGP Desktop
Answer:D

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9.How does a cluster know if a server needs to be updated?
A.Highwatermark
B.Web Messenger replication
C.Smart topology
D.Timestamps
Answer:A

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10.How does the “Prefer Notes native encoding over PGP encoding” feature work?
A.External emails are PGP encrypted but internal ones are Notes encrypted
B.Internal emails are PGP encrypted but external ones are Notes encrypted
C.All emails are Notes encrypted
D.The user is prompted to choose their encryption type
Answer:A

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11.How does Web Messenger replication work?
A.There is no replication
B.Messages can be replicated to all servers or a number of servers or not replicated
C.Messages are stored on all servers or not replicated
D.Messages can only be replicated to a number of servers or not replicated
E.Messages are always replicated on all servers unless it is a DMZ server
Answer: B

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12.How is the private key of the ADK protected?
A.The private key should be split into several shares and given to designated users.
B.The ADK keypair is stored on the server
C.The private key is protected by the Ignition Key
D.The ADK doesn't have a private key
Answer:A

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13.How many backups are kept by default?
A.7
B.30
C.5
D.5, not configurable
Answer:C

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14.If a user belongs to 3 different groups, which one will give this user policy?
A.The first one created on the server if there is no order specified
B.The Excluded group if he belongs to it
C.Wherever LDAP puts them first
D.The Everyone group
Answer:B

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15.If Alice has forgotten the passphrase for her encrypted boot volume, what can her administrator do?
A.Use the WDE-ADMIN group access to authenticate at BootGuard and change the passphrase
B.Check the box for "Automatically decrypt boot disk upon power on" in Consumer Policy
C.Use the Account lockout mechanism to reset her passphrase
D.Use the Whole Disk Recovery Token
E.Reset her passphrase in PGP Universal Server
Answer: D

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16.A user has never dealt with another employee but is able to send them secure email because they
have a PGP Universal Server.This is possible because of:
A.This is an example of the SMIME Web of Trust
B.Manual verification
C.This is not possible with PGP products
D.A trust relationship
Answer:D

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18.If you did not specify network settings during the installation process, which of the following IP
addresses would initially be assigned to your PGP Universal Server?
A.172.16.10.100/24
B.192.168.1.100/24
C.10.1.1.100/24
D.none of the above
Answer:B

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19.If you had to manually type in your PGP Universal Server address to administer it, what would it be?
A.http://Key.domain:443
B.https://Key.domain:9000
C.https://Keys.domain
D.https://Keys.domain:9000
Answer:D

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20.If you move an encrypted file out of a PGP NetShare protected folder and onto your Windows desktop
what happens?
A.The file is decrypted
B.The file remains encrypted
C.The file remains encrypted only if it is protected by the blacklist
D.If advanced user mode is enabled it stays encrypted
E.It is decrypted if the file is data created by an application on the blacklist
Answer: B

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NO.3 Given the following details, which of the answers best describes what a user can do? A user who is not
a PGP NetShare user but is a PGP Desktop user attempts to access a PGP NetShare encrypted folder...
A.The data can be decrypted
B.The user cannot access the share at all
C.The user can read but cannot move, copy or delete the files
D.The NTFS permissions determine what the user can do with the files, but the data remains encrypted
Answer:B

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NO.4 How do PGP Universal Server clusters resolve conflicts where a user account is being changed on two
or more servers at the same time?
A.Highwatermark
B.Web Messenger replication
C.Smart topology
D.Timestamps
Answer:D

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NO.5 How could I verify user keys for a partner using SMIME?
A.By placing the partner's CA in the list of Trusted Keys
B.By adding an Organization Certificate to my PGP Universal Server
C.By splitting my ADK
D.PGP Universal Server automatically trusts all non-PGP SMIME servers
Answer:A

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NO.6 Given the following details, which of the answers best describes what a user can do?A user who is not a
PGP Desktop user accesses a PGP NetShare encrypted folder.
A.The data can be decrypted
B.The user cannot access the share at all
C.The user can read but cannot move, copy or delete the files
D.The NTFS permissions determine what the user can do with the files, but the data remains encrypted
Answer:D

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Symantec meilleur examen ST0-148, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: ST0-148
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX Technical Assessment )
Questions et réponses: 109 Q&As

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NO.1 A user creates a 10MB file, which is then compressed using vxcompress to reduce the file size to 1MB.
Another user copies this file to a different Veritas File System (VxFS) on the same host using cp. What is
the resulting file size of the copy?
A. 1MB
B. 9MB
C. 10MB
D. 11MB
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the default private region size for Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) disks?
A. 8MB
B. 16MB
C. 32MB
D. 64MB
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which virtual storage configuration can be created with Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX?
A. LVM
B. RAID
C. SVM
D. LPAR
Answer: B

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NO.4 The disk group appdg is imported onto host01 using the vxdg -t import appdg command. Volumes
have been started and file systems mounted. The system is then gracefully rebooted. What happens to
the appdg disk group after host01 has restarted?
A. The appdg disk group is automatically imported; all volumes in the disk group are automatically started.
B. The appdg disk group is automatically temporarily imported; all volumes in the disk group are
automatically started.
C. The appdg disk group remains deported; only host01 can import the disk group using the vxdg import
appdg command.
D. The appdg disk group remains deported; any host that can access the appdg disk group can import it.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which command line utility is used to view Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) plexes?
A. vxdisk
B. vxdg
C. vxplex
D. vxprint
Answer: D

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NO.6 A Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) disk named Disk_4 has been removed from the datadg disk group.
Which command is used to remove this disk from Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) control?
A. vxdisk -g datadg rmdisk Disk_4
B. vxdiskunsetup Disk_4
C. vxdg -g datadg rmdisk Disk_4
D. vxdisksetup -r Disk_4
Answer: B

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NO.7 A system with a single, locally mounted file system loses power and is subsequently restarted. All
hardware is functioning properly and the intent log is valid. The administrator then mounts the file system
using the mount command. What is the expected behavior.?
A. Mount will replay the intent log.
B. Mount prints an error stating that a fsck log replay will be required.
C. Mount succeeds silently as normal.
D. Mount prints an error message stating that a full fsck will be required.
Answer: A

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NO.8 An administrator needs to move all data volumes and disks in diskgroup appdg into an existing
diskgroup named webdg. The end result will yield one diskgroup on the system: webdg. Which command
should the administrator use to move the data volumes?
A. vxdg move appdg webdg
B. vxdg split appdg webdg
C. vxdg join appdg webdg
D. vxdg add appdg webdg
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which two conditions are applicable to disks of a disk group that have been destroyed with the vxdg
destroy command without re-deploying the disks? (Select two.)
A. The destroy operation retains the on-disk disk group ID, which makes the disk group recoverable.
B. The destroy operation clears the on-disk disk group ID, which makes recovery impossible.
C. The destroy operation clears the on-disk disk group name and makes disks available for use in other
disk groups.
D. The destroy operation clears the on-disk disk group name and re-initializes all of the disks.
E. The destroy operation deports the disk group and re-formats all of the disks.
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 Which command resizes the file system without changing the volume size?
A. tunefs
B. vxresize
C. fsadm
D. vxfsadm
Answer: C

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NO.11 Veritas File System (VxFS) is an extent based file system. Which two pieces of information form the
basis of an extent? (Select two.)
A. inode number
B. offset
C. length
D. owner's UID
E. block size
Answer: B,C

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NO.12 An administrator plans to move disks EMC_11 and EMC_12 from diskgroup appdg to diskgroup webdg.
There are several volumes residing on both disks, so the administrator needs a list of volumes that will be
affected for planning purposes. Which command should the administrator use to generate the list?
A. vxdg listclone appdg webdg
B. vxdg listmeta EMC_11 EMC_12
C. vxdg list appdg webdg
D. vxdg listmove appdg webdg EMC_11 EMC_12
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which command can an administrator use to display the bsize and logsize used on an existing file
system?
A. mkfs
B. fsadm
C. mount
D. fsmap
Answer: A

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NO.14 What enables combining disks or LUNs into logical collections to make administration easier?
A. volume
B. plex
C. subdisk
D. disk group
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-148   ST0-148

NO.15 Which region stores the information that manages virtual devices when a LUN is brought under Veritas
Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX control?
A. private region
B. VTOC region
C. virtual region
D. public region
Answer: A

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Nom d'Examen: AIIM (Certified Information Professional Examination)
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

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NO.1 Metadata types used for information management include which of the following? (Choose 3)
A. Descriptive
B. Foundational
C. Structural
D. Core
E. Administrative
F. Elementary
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.2 Which of the following is the most accurate description of tiered storage?
A. The setup of a file structure that determines where information is placed to provide added security and
long-term storage
B. The export of inactive or fixed-content information to paper or media for long-term storage
C. Location of information based on record type, active/inactive content and the type of media required for
storage
D. The assignment of data based on levels of protection, performance requirements, and frequency of
use
Answer: D

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NO.3 A means to capture, monitor, and leverage intellectual capital within communities of practice is known
as
A. Information Sharing
B. Knowledge Management
C. Information Transference
D. Knowledge Delivery
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the primary purpose of a legal hold?
A. To distribute notification of the legal obligation to prevent destruction or modification of any information
relevant to a lawsuit
B. To collect and export for review any information that pertains to a lawsuit or governmental investigation
C. To collect information based on keyword searches defined by legal counsel in the event of a
preservation notice
D. To prevent the modification or destruction of documents and electronically-stored information (ESI)
relevant to a lawsuit or governmental investigation
Answer: D

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NO.5 An organization has just released a new. completely redesigned website. The website bounce rate has
increased by 20 percent over the previous site's. The website manager suspects the issue results from
confusion caused by the new website's structure, layout and/or visual cues. The best recommendation is
to start investigating by doing
A. A/B testing.
B. Multivariate testing.
C. Usability testing,
D. Conversion testing.
Answer: C

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NO.6 A social media team should have representatives from which of the following areas? (Choose 3)
A. Executive Management
B. Information Technology
C. Financial Management
D. Records Management
E. Administrative Services
F. Communications
Answer: B,D,F

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NO.7 A common characteristic of folksonomies is that they
A. Are somewhat slow to develop because of the initial planning required.
B. Arise in hierarchical environments where administrators can oversee them.
C. Feature strong bibliographic control provided by their formal structure.
D. Provide an opportunity for collaborative classification by multiple users.
Answer: D

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NO.8 A statement of work (SOW) for an information management project is intended to
A. Define the scope of the project,
B. Provide project reporting.
C. Identify return on investment.
D. Identify what is to be delivered.
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 What type of information should be collected when conducting a data inventory? (Choose 2)
A. Data location
B. Date of the next inventory
C. Owner of the data
D. Data policies
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 Which of the following is the best basis for documenting costs and benefits of an Information
Management (IM) solution?
A. Project cost, current storage cost, estimated savings
B. Business impact, software and project cost, increased revenue
C. Number of months to realize financial benefits, estimated rate of return
D. Payback period, net present value, internal rate of return
Answer: D

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NO.11 Corporate information governance is most likely to be successful when
A. Departments develop and manage their own governance.
B. Information governance is developed prior to solution deployments.
C. IT directs, manages, and oversees governance.
D. Information governance is developed after solution deployments.
Answer: B

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NO.12 The purpose of conducting a knowledge audit is to (Choose 2)
A. Identify knowledge assets, resources, and locations,
B. Resolve organizational and cultural knowledge issues,
C. Develop enhanced knowledge management solutions,
D. Determine the organization's knowledge needs.
Answer: A,D

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NO.13 Vital records are defined as records that are fundamental to the functioning of an organization and are
necessary to continue operations during
A. Normal circumstances.
B. An external audit.
C. Extraordinary conditions.
D. Litigation.
Answer: C

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NO.14 In which of the following is a user's navigation through an information space guided and structured by
the activities of others within that space?
A. Site map navigation
B. Social navigation
C. Link-based navigation
D. Breadcrumb navigation
Answer: B

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NO.15 An organization seeks to maintain its information in an unalterable state. Which of these technologies is
best suited to meet this requirement?
A. Public key infrastructure
B. Write once read many
C. Private key infrastructure
D. Redacting annotation
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: PEGACMBB
Nom d'Examen: Pegasystems (PRPC Certified Methodology Black Belt Exam )
Questions et réponses: 62 Q&As

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NO.1 The following action occurs during all phases of the SmartBPM Methodology: (Choose one)
A. Quality checks
B. Governance
C. Directly Capturing Objectives
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.2 Use case rules can reference or be referenced by which other rules? (Choose 3)
A. Flows
B. Activities
C. Requirements
D. Validation rules
E. Properties
Answer: A,B,C

Pegasystems   PEGACMBB   PEGACMBB   PEGACMBB   PEGACMBB

NO.3 It is a best practice to create an inventory of existing objectives, requirements, use cases, and other
project artifacts because: (Choose Two)
A. Reusing artifacts saves time and effort
B. These artifacts can be used to enter information into the Application Profiler
C. These artifacts can be used to extract information from the Project Management Framework
D. These artifacts are required to create a new application
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 The program roadmap presents the big picture for solution development. This roadmap is divided into
_____ which are divided into _____ which are made up of _____. (Choose one)
A. Use cases, slivers, projects
B. Projects, use cases, slivers
C. Use cases, projects, slivers
D. Projects, slivers, use cases
Answer: D

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NO.5 All of the following are benefits realized from the SmartBPM Methodology EXCEPT: (Choose one)
A. Short release cycles ensure maximum value is obtained along the way
B. Strict project management planning and measurement using tollgate milestones
C. Users provide higher quality requirements for subsequent releases after first-hand experience
D. Planning for multiple releases establishes a framework that ensures value gain in the future
Answer: B

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NO.6 The following processes/tools are used in the Inception phase EXCEPT: (Choose one)
A. Project Plan Template
B. Methodology Alignment Workshop
C. Project Management Framework
D. Test Management Framework
Answer: D

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NO.7 When these artifacts are combined they result in a checklist that shows the business has received the
expected value from this application: (Choose two)
A. Objectives
B. Requirements
C. Use cases
D. Project scenarios
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 From a flow rule you can see links to what elements of the flow? (Choose four)
A. Various shapes in the flow
B. Requirements
C. Starting models
D. Flow-wide Local Actions
E. Entire flows
Answer: A,B,D,E

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NO.9 The full scope of the Directly Capturing Objectives (DCO) session is defined as running the Application
Profiler during the Inception phase. True or False
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.10 In the SmartBPM methodology, when should project enablement training (role based training) begin?
(Choose one)
A. Project Initiation
B. Elaboration
C. Inception
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: PEGACSSA-v6.2
Nom d'Examen: Pegasystems (Certified Senior System Architect (CSSA) Exam (PEGACSSA_v6.2))
Questions et réponses: 209 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following best describes the purpose of Application Express? (Choose One)
A. To build a simple application that will be used for prototyping
B. To build an application profile that will be fed into the Application Accelerator
C. To build an enterprise-scale application that encourages reuse, including the Enterprise Class
Structure
D. To build an application "from scratch", when an Application Profile is not necessary or available
Answer: A

Pegasystems   PEGACSSA-v6.2   PEGACSSA-v6.2

NO.2 Given the following rules and assuming the expression is set to forward chaining (whenever
inputs change), which action will cause the expression to fire? (Choose One)
A. Changes to the values .Country or .State
B. Referencing .TaxRate
C. Referencing .Country or .State
D. Changes to the values .Country or .State as well as references to .TaxRate
Answer: A

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NO.3 Expressions that are backward chaining (set to "Whenever Used") execute when___________.
(Choose One)
A. the target property is referenced ONLY in data transforms or activities
B. the target property is referenced in any way
C. dependent properties are changed
D. data is committed to the database
Answer: B

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NO.4 A business requirement is to attach a scanned document to work items. However, only a
select group of workers should be allowed to do so. Which attachment feature would you most
likely leverage to implement your solution? (Choose One)
A. Configure an attachment category
B. Enable attachment level security
C. Define a specific access group
D. Provide a role-based attachment security
Answer: A

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NO.5 In which situation can the Data Transform rule not be used? (Choose One)
A. To set some properties as the work item advances over a flow connector
B. To copy data from a connector
C. To set initial property values on a SOAP service primary page
D. Interacting with PRPC database
Answer: D

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NO.6 What statements most accurately explains private check-outs? (Choose Two)
A. When checking in a private checked-out rule manual merging might be required
B. Use the check-out setting in the operator preferences to specify the preferred check-out method
(standard/private)
C. Private check-out is available if the rule is checked-out by someone else
D. Locking a RuleSet prevents private check-outs
E. Private check-out is only available for a user who has previously checked in the rule
Answer: A,C

Pegasystems   PEGACSSA-v6.2   PEGACSSA-v6.2   PEGACSSA-v6.2 examen

NO.7 Which of the following are most accurate regarding utility functions? (Choose Two)
A. Utility functions can use both the standard Java API and the PRPC Public API
B. Utility functions are called by utility shapes in flows
C. A new utility function should only be created if no other rules or provided functions can
accomplish a given requirement
D. Utility functions cannot access clipboard data
E. It is recommended, but not required, that utility functions belong to a library
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 Given the following decision table:
Considering clipboard values:
.Country = 'US' .State='CA' .MonthsEmployed = 9
What result value will be returned? (Choose One)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
E. 6
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding declarative rules? (Choose One)
A. Declarative rules run in a separate thread
B. Declarative rules can only be used for numeric computation
C. Declarative rules should only be used in pure business rules engine applications
D. Declarative rules improve developer productivity and reduce risk by making PRPC responsible for
executing the rules
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following is a RuleSet versioning practice that is prevented by PRPC? (Choose
One)
A. Skipping RuleSet versions
B. Having two unlocked versions of the same RuleSet
C. Locking a RuleSet that has rules currently checked out
D. Unlocking a RuleSet that was once locked
Answer: C

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NO.11 The evaluate all rows feature of a decision table can be used to ________? (Choose One)
A. return multiple values to a declarative expression that calls it
B. return the value of the last row where all conditions are met
C. create a mechanism to calculate the sum of all matching rows
D. set the value of a specific property for all pages in a page list
Answer: C

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NO.12 Your application has leveraged the parent-child mid-process dependency relationship for some
of the case types. Which of the following situations should you be concerned with and have your
design appropriately avoid? (Choose One)
A. A double instantiation of the child cases
B. A broken process
C. A deadlock condition
D. A critical performance issue
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following statements are true regarding declarative expressions and their scope?
(Choose Two)
A. Declarative expressions can be defined relative to the top level page OR an embedded page
B. All declarative expressions must be defined relative to the work object
C. Defining expressions directly on data classes can improve reusability of the expression
D. The Applies To class of a declarative expression must derive from Work-
E. Defining expressions directly on data classes means they will only run if the data class is a top
level page
Answer: A,C

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NO.14 Which of the following factors is most critical when deciding between Decision Trees, Decision
Tables and Map Values? (Choose One)
A. Which rule form the business users who will maintain the rule feel most comfortable with
B. Always consider Decision Trees before tables as they execute faster
C. Only consider MapValues when there is one input parameter
D. Which rule type provides the most optimal runtime performance
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which feature would you use to copy the highest version of every rule in a RuleSet to a new
version? (Choose One)
A. Copy/Merge RuleSet
B. Lock and Roll
C. Skim a RuleSet
D. Refactor on import
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: M70-201
Nom d'Examen: Magento (Magento Certified Developer Plus Exam )
Questions et réponses: 131 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statement correctly describes order state and order status?
A. State and status are independent properties of the order.
B. The status is a child of the state.
C. State represents the general state of the order, while status works on item level.
D. An order doesn't have a status, only a state. Status is a property of an invoice, shipment, and credit
memo.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which kind of class is responsible for calculating the actual amount of reward points in every case?
A. Reward model (Enterprise_Reward_Model_Reward)
B. Action model (derivatives from Entet:prise_Reward_Model_Action)
C. Event model (derivatives from Enterprise_Reward_Model_Event)
D. Calculation model (Enterprise_Reward_Model_Calculator)
Answer: B

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NO.3 With which three kinds of product relations do Magento Catalog Target Rules deal? (Choose three)
A. The relations between a configurable product and its child products
B. The relations between a bundle product and its child products
C. The relations among products linked as cross-sell products
D. The relations between a product and its custom options
E. The relations among products linked as related products
F. The relations among products linked as upsell products
Answer: C,E,F

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NO.4 When changes are made to more than one of a collection's items using setData( 'some', 'value'), which
of the following methods will save the changes in the collection?
A. $collection->saveAll();
B. $collection->saveItems ();
C. $collection->saveAllItems ()?
D. $collection->save();
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which three of the following conditions are used to protect an admin route via ACL? (Choose three)
A. You have defined an ACL in your module configuration
B. At least one admin role must have permission for that route
C. You have extended the controller from Mage_Adminhtml_Controller_Action
D. You have defined a method _is Allowed which checks the permission
E. The route name must start with admin
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.6 A custom frontend controller will extend which one of the following classes?
A. Mage_Core_Controller_Front_Action
B. Mage_Adminhtml_Controller_Action
C. Mage_Core_Controller_Varien_Front
D. Mage_Core_Controller_Abstract
Answer: A

Magento   M70-201   M70-201

NO.7 Which one of the following statements is true regarding Mage_Core_Block_Text_List?
A. Mage_Core_Block_Text_List declares its own template for rendering, but the rendered template can be
overridden via layout XML.
B. Child blocks of Mage_Core_Block_Text_List are always rendered alphabetically by name.
C. Mage_Core_Block_Text_List will always render all children automatically when it is rendered.
D. Mage_Core_Block_Text_List directly extends Mage_Core_Block_Template
E. In order to render, the parent block of Mage_Core_Block_Text_List must always be an output block.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following actions will enable logging via calls to debugData() on a native Magento
payment method model?
A. Set the protected property $_debug of the payment model to true
B. Set the config node default/payment/debug/ [method code] to 1
C. Call Mage::register ('payment_method_debug_' . [method code], true);
D. Set the config node default/payment/ [method code]/debug to 1
E. Call setDebug(true) on the payment method model
Answer: D

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NO.9 When setData (' some', 'value') is called on an EAV entity and the entity is saved to the database,
A. The 'value' of the attribute named 'some' is saved in the eav_values table
B. The 'value' of the attribute named ' some' is saved in one of the entity's tables depending on its
datatype (for example, entityname_varchar)
C. The data will be stored in the EAV registry making ' some' 'value' available to the entity
D. The 'value' of the attribute named T some' is saved in the eav attribute values table
Answer: B

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NO.10 In what order are the routers from the Magento core checked for a matching route?
Default: Mage_Core_Controller_Varien_Router_Default
CMS: Mage_Cms_Controller_Router
Standard: Mage_Core_Controller_Varien_Router_Standard
Admin: Mage_Core_Controller_Varien_Router_Admin
A. Admin, Standard, CMS, Default
B. Default, CMS, Standard, Admin
C. Admin, CMS, Standard, Default
D. Standard, Admin, Default, CMS
Answer: A

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NO.11 What is the purpose of Catalog Target rules?
A. To extend Catalog Price Rules to be used for related products.
B. To provide a mechanism for rendering a list of additional products on the product page.
C. To provide a mechanism for rendering a list of custom product options.
D. To provide a mechanism for easier selection options for configurable products.
Answer: B

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NO.12 To implement a standard Adminhtml form for a custom data model, which two of the following must you
do? (Choose two)
A. Declare your module's block class prefix in the config.xml file.
B. Implement a sub-class of Mage_Adminhtml_Block_Widget_Form.
C. Implement a sub-class of Mage_Adminhtml_Block_Form_Abstract.
D. Create sub-classes of Mage_Adminhtml_Block_Form_Element_Abstract for each form field to be
presented.
E. Add a set of configuration values in the module's config-xml defining the form fields to be displayed.
Answer: A,B

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NO.13 What is the difference in the effect of calling the invoice capture () method versus the invoice pay ()
method?
A. No difference: pay () will always call capture ().
B. Pay () will trigger the payment and capture!) will not.
C. Capture () will trigger the payment and pay () will not.
D. The difference is determined by the payment method implementation.
Answer: C

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NO.14 What type of Magento class is an API resource?
A. Controller
B. Helper
C. Model
D. Resource model
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following block methods is the best to override when there is a need to customize how the
block's html is rendered?
A. _toHtml()
B. toHtmlO
C. setLayout ()
D. renderLayout ()
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which three of the following object types will have a parent class found in the Mage_Eav module for the
purposes of EAV data storage in Magento? (Choose three)
A. Data model
B. Data helper
C. Resource model
D. Resource collection
E. Setup class
Answer: C,D,E

Magento examen   M70-201   M70-201   M70-201

NO.17 When $ this ->load Layout (' foo_bar_baz') is called in a standard front action, what is the effect on the
layout update object instance?
A. foo_bar_baz will be the only handle added
B. loadLayout () does not take any arguments, so there is no effect
C. Only two handles will be added: foo_bar_baz and default
D. Foo_bar_baz will be added instead of the default handle
Answer: D

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NO.18 Applying the shopping cart rule's action affects the quote item by setting the quote item's
_______________.
A. base_price and price properties with the discounted price
B. base_discount_amount and discount_amount with the discount applied to the original price
C. base_row_total and cow_total properties with the discounted price
D. base_price_incl_tax and price_incl_tax properties with the discounted price
Answer: B

Magento   M70-201   M70-201   M70-201 examen

NO.19 Which one of the following xpaths is correct for replacing Mage_Customer_Model_Custom_Address via
Mage::helper ('customer/address')?
A. Global/customer/helpers/address
B. Global/rewrite/helpers/rewrite/address
C. Global/helpers/customer/rewrite/address
D. Global/helpers/rewrite/customer_address
E. Global/helpers/rewrite/customer/address
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which of the following API calls allows you to fetch the list of related products using the native
Magento API?
A. catalog_product_link.list, with arguments $type='related', $product_id
B. catalog_product.list, with arguments $type='related', $product_id
C. catalog_product_related.list, with argument $product_id
D. catalog_product_option.list, with arguments $type='related', $product_id
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: CTAL-TM_001
Nom d'Examen: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level - Test Manager)
Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

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NO.1 You have been given responsibility for the non-functional testing of a safety-critical
monitoring &
diagnostics package in the medical area. Which of the following would you least expect to
see addressed
in the test plan? 1 credit
A. Availability
B. Safety
C. Portability
D. Reliability
Answer: C

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NO.2 Since the system is in the medical domain and therefore in the safety critical area,
testing needs to be
rigorous and evidence is required that the system has been adequately tested. Identify
THREE measures
that would typically be part of the test approach in this domain and which are not always
applicable in
other domains! 1 credit
A. High level of documentation
B. Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) sessions
C. Traceability to requirements
D. Non-functional testing
E. Master test planning
F. Test design techniques
G. Reviews
Answer: A,B,C

ISQI   CTAL-TM_001   CTAL-TM_001   CTAL-TM_001

NO.3 You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test
specialist. Which
of the following topics should NOT be included in the test progress report? 1 credit
A. Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.
B. Recommendations for taking controlling actions
C. Status compared against the started exit criteria
D. Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the exit criteria to
be achieved
Answer: D

ISQI   CTAL-TM_001   CTAL-TM_001   CTAL-TM_001

NO.4 Consider the typical objectives of testing. Which of the following metrics can be used to
measure the
effectiveness of the testing process in achieving one of those objectives? 1 credit
A. Average number of days between defect discovery and resolution
B. Percentage of requirements covered
C. Lines of code written per developer per day
D. Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing
Answer: B

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NO.5 As part of the improvement program, the organization is also looking at tool support.
Which type of tool
could be used to ensure higher quality of the code to be reviewed? 1 credit
A. Review tool
B. Test execution tool
C. Static analysis tool
D. Test design tool
Answer: C

ISQI   CTAL-TM_001   CTAL-TM_001   CTAL-TM_001 examen

NO.6 Explain how the above mentioned report may differ from a report that you produce for
the project
manager, who is a test specialist Select TWO items from the following options that can be
used to report
to the project manager and would not be included in a report to senior management. 1 credit
A. Show details on effort spent
B. List of all outstanding defects with their priority and severity
C. Give product risk status
D. Show trend analysis
E. State recommendations for release
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 A test log is one of the documents that need to be produced in this domain in order to
provide evidence
of testing. However, the level of detail of test logs can vary. Which of the following is NOT an
influencing
factor for the level of detail of the test logs being produced? 1 credit
A. Level of test execution automation
B. Test level
C. Regulatory requirements
D. Experience level of testers
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is the main reason why reviews are especially beneficial in the above-mentioned
scenario? 2
credits
A. They ensure a common understanding of the product.
B. They find defects early.
C. They enhance project communication.
D. They can be performed without exercising the code.
Answer: D

ISQI examen   CTAL-TM_001   CTAL-TM_001 examen   CTAL-TM_001

NO.9 Considerable attention will be given in this project to defining exit criteria and on
reporting back on their
status. Which combination of TWO exit criteria from the list would be best to use? 1 credit
I. Total number of defects found
II. Percentage of test cases executed
III. Total test effort planned versus total actual test effort spent
IV. Defect trend (number of defects found per test run over time
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i) and (iv)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (ii) and (iv)
Answer: D

ISQI   CTAL-TM_001 examen   CTAL-TM_001   CTAL-TM_001   CTAL-TM_001

NO.10 Identify the THREE types of formal peer reviews that can be recognized. 1 credit
A. Inspection
B. Management review
C. Walkthrough
D. Audit
E. Technical review
F. Informal review
G. Assessment
Answer: A,C,E

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