Meilleur Alcatel-Lucent 4A0-108 4A0-103 4A0-104 test formation guide

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Code d'Examen: 4A0-108
Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Multicast Protocols)
Questions et réponses: 122 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 4A0-103
Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Multiprotocol Label Switching)
Questions et réponses: 98 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 4A0-104
Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Services Architecture)
Questions et réponses: 141 Q&As

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NO.1 The diagram above shows the MPLS packet format for transporting L2 services over an MPLS
transport tunnel. In the diagram what does "YYYYY" represent?
A. Service VC label
B. Control word
C. Inner label
D. TCP/IP header
Answer: B

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NO.2 Identify the correct labels for the Martini encapsulation diagram above.
A. XX Transport Label, YY VC Label, ZZ Control Word
B. XX VC Label, YY Transport Label, ZZ Control Word
C. XX VC Label, YY Control Word, ZZ Transport Label
D. XX Control Word, YY VC Label, ZZ Transport Label
E. XX Control Word, YY Transport Label, ZZ VC Label
Answer: A

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NO.3 Martini encapsulation typically makes use of the control word in which of the following situations?
(Choose two)
A. Ethernet
B. ATM AAL5
C. TDM
D. HDLC
E. Frame Relay
Answer: BE

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NO.4 Point to multipoint MPLS Layer 2 VPN connectivity and encapsulation is described most accurately by
which of the following?
A. RFC 4448: Encapsulation methods for transport of Ethernet over MPLS.
B. RFC3201: Definitions of Managed Objects for Circuit to Interface Translation.
C. RFC 4762: VPLS over LDP Signaling
D. RFC 4364 BGP/MPLS Layer-3 VPN
Answer: C

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NO.5 The diagram above shows the MPLS packet format for transporting L2 services over an MPLS
transport tunnel. What encapsulation method is represented by ZZZZZ above?
A. Kompella
B. Alcatel
C. Martini
D. HDLC
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 4A0-M01
Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent IP/MPLS Mobile Backhaul Transport)
Questions et réponses: 150 Q&As

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NO.1 Click on the exhibit.
Given the configuration shown and the following conditions:
* The external reference is offline
* Reference 1 receives Quality Level (QL) - EEC1
* Reference 2 receives QL - SSU-A
Which quality level will the SAR router advertise to its Synchronous Ethernet (SyncE) peers?
A. QL-DNU
B. QL-EEC1
C. QL-SSU-A
D. QL-PRC
E. QL-UNC
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which messages, periodically sent between an IEEE 1588v2/Precision Time Protocol (PTP) v2 master
and slave, serve as hellos to help the slave choose the best available master?
A. Announce
B. Announce_grant
C. Sync
D. Delay_response
Answer: A

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NO.3 Click on the exhibit.
Given the show command results shown:
With what IEEE 1588v2/Precision Time Protocol (PTP) v2 message did the slave node set the Unicast
message rates used by the master?
A. Announce granted
B. Announce request
C. Sync granted
D. Sync request
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which statement correctly describes the Point-to-Point (PPP) Multilink Protocol (MP) negotiation
process?
A. At least one link must complete Link Control Protocol (LCP) negotiations before the bundle can
initialize
B. The endpoints indicate their desire to implement MP in the link Network Control Protocol (NCP) phase
C. The bundle must complete LCP negotiations before it can enter the NCP negotiation phase
D. Internet Protocol-Control Protocol (IPCP) negotiations must succeed for the bundle links to initialize
Answer: A

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NO.5 If an IEEE 1588v2/Precision Time Protocol (PTP) v2 slave times out announce messages with the
master, to which state does the slave port transition to choose another potential master?
A. Initial
B. Listening
C. Passive
D. Un-calibrated
Answer: B

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NO.6 Click on the exhibit.
Given the following:
On the OC-3 port, each provisioned channel group contains all available timeslots.
The command result illustrates which circuit status?
A. The E1 channel group is administratively turned down
B. The DS1 circuit physical link is operationally down
C. The IMA bundle has no operational member links
D. The associated Layer 3 interface is operationallydown
Answer: B

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NO.7 The IETF is know for which standardization effort.?
A. It develops recommendations for core network functionality, broadband service delivery and next
generation services
B. It maintains Requests for Comment (RFC) that describe technical solutions to Internet challenges
C. It creates single, integrated network design guidelines to support mobile broadband services
D. It develops radio access services and systems for high capacity mobile networks
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which timing technique can deliver time of day and phase synchronization information to the base
station without concern for Packet Delay Variation (PDV)?
A. Building Integrated Timing Supply (BITS)
B. Global Positioning System (GPS)
C. Adaptive Clock Recovery (ACR)
D. IEEE 1588v2/Precision Time Protocol (PTP)
Answer: B

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NO.9 Click on the exhibit.
Consider the topology and MLS1 configuration shown, and given the following conditions:
-MLS1 delivers the PRC traceable clock to the network
-Reference 1 receives Quality Level (QL) - ST3
-Reference 2 receives QL - DUS
-BITS sets QL-STU
Which quality level will MLS1 deliver to POC2-1 on its Synchronous Ethernet (SyncE) port 1/2/7?
A. QL-EEC2
B. QL-PRS
C. QL-ST3
D. QL-STU
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which statement best describes adaptive timing techniques?
A. Adaptive timing calculates the time of day from time stamped packets
B. Adaptive timing calculates the time of day from the arriving packet rate
C. Adaptive timing only supports frequency synchronization
D. Adaptive timing only operates on point-to-point links
Answer: A

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NO.11 Click on the exhibit.
On the OC-3 port, each provisioned channel group contains all available timeslots
The command result illustrates which OC-3 port characteristic?
A. On STS1-1,the second VT1.5 in the second VTG is set for IPCP encapsulation
B. On STS1-1,the second DS1 channel group in the second VTG isoperationallyup
C. On STS1-1, the second E1 channel group in the second TUG-2 is operationally up
D. On STS1-1, the second VT2 in the second TUG-2 is set for IPCP encapsulation
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which is a characteristic of the IEEE 802.3 Slow Protocol?
A. There are a maximum of 10 frames transmitted per second
B. There are a maximum of 20 slow protocol subtypes per interface
C. The maximum slow protocol frame size is 64 bytes
D. The slow protocol header carries the clock quality level
Answer: A

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NO.13 In the Alcatel-Lucent SROS, which command creates the OC-3 path's Administrative Unit (AU)-4 Virtual
Container (VC) capacity?
A. configure port 3/1/2 sonet-sdh path au-4
B. configure port 3/1/2 sonet-sdh path sts3
C. configure port 3/1/2 sonet-sdh path tug-3
D. configure port 3/1/2 sonet-sdh path vc-4
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which synchronization technique supports time of day and phase synchronization?
A. IEEE 1588 v2/Precision Time Protocol (PTP)v2
B. Adaptive Clock Recovery (ACR)
C. Time Division Multiplexing (TDM) line timing
D. Synchronization Ethernet (SyncE)/Synchronization Status Message (SSM)
Answer: A

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NO.15 An SROS router obtains its timing exclusively from its BITS input port. The router sets Quality Level
(QL) SONET Traceability Unknown (STU) on this Superframe (SF) framed DS1 BITS reference.
What must you configure on this master router to pass the best clock quality level to the downstream
Synchronous Ethernet (SyncE) slave nodes while maintaining traceability to the DS1 source?
A. Enable "ql-override prs" on the BITS reference
B. Enable "ql-override prs" on the master's SyncE ports
C. Enable "ql-selection prs" on the BITS reference
D. Set the master router to choose its source by quality level
Answer: A

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NO.16 In the Alcatel-Lucent SROS, which payload type set in a SDH-framed OC-12 port creates individual E1
containers?
A. Virtual Tributary (VT) 1.5
B. VT2
C. Virtual Container (VC)-11
D. VC-12
Answer: B

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NO.17 Click on the exhibit.
Consider the topology and MLS1 configuration shown, and given the following conditions:
* MLS1 delivers the PRC traceable clock to the network
* Reference 1 receives Quality Level (QL) - EEC1
* Reference 2 receives QL - SSU-A
* BITS sets QL-SSU-B
Which quality level will MLS1 deliver to POC2-1 on its Synchronous Ethernet (SyncE) port 1/2/7?
A. QL-EEC1
B. QL-PRC
C. QL-SSU-A
D. QL-STU
Answer: B

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NO.18 Click on the exhibit.
The command result indicates which condition on the Inverse Multiplexing over ATM (IMA) bundle?
A. The number of active links has dropped belowthe minimum threshold
B. The associated Layer 3 interface is administratively down
C. The remote IMA bundle is administrativelydown
D. The parent OC-3 is operationally down
Answer: C

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NO.19 When researching carrier-class Ethernet standards to support the mobile backhaul Ethernet transport,
which standards body would you consult?
A. IEEE
B. MEF
C. ITU-T
D. NGMN
Answer: B

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NO.20 Click on the exhibit.
Given the show command results shown:
Which IEEE 1588v2/Precision Time Protocol (PTP) v2 parent clock value does the slave first consider
when choosing its master?
A. GM Clock Priority1
B. GM Clock ID
C. GM Clock Priority2
D. GM Clock Class
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 4A0-107
Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Quality of Service)
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

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NO.1 How many bits does DSCP use to provide QoS marking options?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 6
D. 4
E. 3
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following are characteristics of DSCP? (Choose two)
A. DSCP is part of the Layer 3 header.
B. DSCP is a 6-bit field.
C. DSCP specifies eight different priorities.
D. DSCP specifies four precedence levels.
E. DSCP is part of the Layer 2 header
F. DSCP specifies 128 different per-hop behaviors.
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 Which of the following statements regarding DSCP bits are TRUE? (Choose three)
A. The three most significant (first) bits define 8 forwarding classes.
B. The three least significant (last) bits of the DSCP specify the drop probability.
C. The full 8 bits of the TOS field are used for DSCP.
D. To convert DSCP to IP precedence, the three most significant (first) bits are matched.
E. DSCP provides for eight drop probabilities.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.4 Which of the following can be used as classifiers of customer traffic? (Choose three)
A. DSCP value
B. 802.1p value
C. IP DF bit
D. TCP/UDP port numbers
E. HTML version number
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.5 Individual application streams are considered microflows, whereas __________ are considered
macroflows.
A. SAPs
B. SDPs
C. Services
D. Queues
E. Schedulers
F. Forwarding classes
Answer: F

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NO.6 Which of the following BEST describes a SAP when regarding QoS?
A. A point in the network where EXP bits can be mapped to one of eight predefined FCs, each one with its
own queue.
B. A logical point in a service tunnel where all of customer traffic is aggregated.
C. A point at which the initial classification of customer traffic occurs.
D. A point in the network where QoS parameters are discarded in favor of lower-level hardware queuing
functions, such as LLI (Link Layer Interleave).
E. A point in the network where traffic flows from multiple different services are queued together, based on
forwarding class.
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is an SLA? (Choose two)
A. An SLA is used to provide automated, real-time testing and alarming for throughput, latency, and jitter
across a provider's network.
B. An SLA is an agreement between a customer and a provider that dictates the treatment of customer
traffic across the provider's network.
C. An SLA allows customers to control all traffic within the service provider's network by prioritizing their
traffic over others as desired.
D. An SLA allows a customer to pre-mark traffic and ensure that traffic is treated as per the agreement
within the provider's network.
E. An SLA is a standard set of network QoS policies that a provider shares to all its customers, allowing
them to better understand the treatment of traffic within the provider's network.
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 Which of the following are examples of metrics for QoS.?
A. Signal degradation, attenuation, line loss
B. Latency, FIFO, WRED
C. Delay, jitter, packet loss
D. SNR, queue depth, latency
E. Attenuation, dispersion, latency
Answer: C

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NO.9 Click the exhibit button below.
Based on the configuration shown below, name the forwarding class to be associated with a TCP packet
encapsulated inside an Ethernet frame that arrives on SAP 1/1/5 with the following characteristics:
Destination IP address = 120.110.1.1
TCP port number = 23
DSCP value = nc1
Dot1pvalue = 3
A. H2
B. NC
C. L2
D. EF
E. H1
F. BE
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is the 6-bit binary representation of DSCP value AF21?
A. 010011
B. 100010
C. 010001
D. 001100
E. 010010
Answer: E

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NO.11 Which of the following are major components of QoS functionality on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
(Choose three)
A. Microflow reservations using RSVP
B. DSCP to EXP translation
C. Traffic classification
D. Automatic profiling and policy configuration
E. Buffer memory management
F. Traffic scheduling
Answer: C,E,F

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NO.12 The IP ToS field consists of ________ bits, of which ________are used. The _________most significant
(first) bits define precedence.
A. 8, 6, 3
B. 8, 8, 6
C. 16, 8, 4
D. 8, 6, 4
E. 24, 16, 8
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following are characteristics of 802.1p? (Choose two)
A. 802.1p adds 16 bits to the Layer 2 header,
B. 802.1p adds 16 bits to the Layer 3 header.
C. 802.1p specifies 64 different priority levels.
D. 802.1p uses a field in the 802.1Q header.
E. 802.1p uses a field in the Layer 3 IP header
F. 802.1p defines a 3-bit Class of Service field.
Answer: D,F

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NO.14 What is the maximum number of SAP-ingress policies that can be applied on a SAP?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 8
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following are possible criteria for classifying packets at the network port ingress on the
Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR? (Choose three)
A. The EXP bits in the MPLS header.
B. The packet's source and destination IP addresses.
C. The packet's DSCP bits.
D. The dot1p bits in the frame header.
E. The ID of an SDP that is transporting the packet.
Answer: A,C,D

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Code d'Examen: 4A0-105
Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Virtual Private LAN Services)
Questions et réponses: 59 Q&As

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NO.1 Select the command from the list below that produced the following output.
A.oam svc-ping 20.20.20.20 service 10 local-sdp remote-sdp
B.oam sdp-ping 10 resp-sdp 10
C.oam svc-ping 20.20.20.20 service 10 local-sdp
D.oam svc-ping 10.10.10.10 service 10 local-sdp remote-sdp
E.oam svc-ping 10.10.10.10 service 10 local-sdp
Answer: A

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NO.2 True or False? Multiple VPLS services can be offered over the same set of LSP tunnels?
A.True
B.False
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following best describes the difference between VPWS and VPLS?
A.VPWS is a point-to-point service where CEs are presented with point- to-point virtual circuits whereas
VPLS is a bridged LAN service provided to a set of CEs that are members of a L2 VPN
B.Unlike VPLS, VPWS allows CEs that are member of the same service instance to communicate with
each other as if they are connected via a bridged LAN
C.Unlike VPWS, VPLS provides customers to view the network as an unshared overlay link or circuit
Answer: A

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NO.4 The behavior of VPLS can be best described by which of the following statements?
A.A frame should be sent only to the PE that connects to the target site of the frame whenever possible
B.A frame should be flooded as little as possible
C.Customer frames should be switched based on the destination MAC address
D.Only (a) and (b) are true
E.All of the above
Answer: E

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NO.5 Which SDP on R3 will MAC addresses be associated with for devices behind R2?
A.It depends if traffic is received via R4 or R1 from devices behind R2
B.The devices cannot communicate based on the configuration in the diagram so there will be no mac
address association
C.Devices behind R2 will be associated with the sdp between R3 and R1
D.Devices behind R2 will be associated with the sdp between R3 and R4
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following statements is false?
A.VPLS is a bridged LAN service
B.VPLS provides L2 VPN services to CEs
C.VPLS is a point-to-point service where CEs are presented with point- to-point virtual circuits
D.CEs that are members of the same VPLS service instance communicate with each other as if they are
connected
via a bridged LAN
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following functions must a PE router support when participating in a VPLS network?
Choose all that apply.
A.MAC learning
B.Packet replication
C.Proxy ARP
D.Packet forwarding
E.Flood all frames with an unknown destination MAC address to all PE routers associated with that VPLS
Answer: A B D E

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NO.8 Which of the following statements relating to VPLS are false?
A.A VPLS is a multipoint Layer 2 service
B.A VPLS allows multiple customer sites to be connected in a single bridged domain
C.A VPLS on a single node requires a Service Distribution Path
D.With VPLS Service provider can reuse their IP/MPLS infrastructure to offer multiple services
E.The VPLS switches traffic based on MAC address associated to the appropriate SAP
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following contributes to VPLS implementation over MPLS?
A.Connecting bridging-capable provider edge routers with a full mesh of MPLS LSP (label switched path)
tunnels
B.Negotiating per-service VC labels using draft-Martini encapsulation
C.Replicating unknown and broadcast traffic in a service domain
D.Enabling MAC learning over tunnel and access ports
E.Using a separate forwarding information base (FIB) per VPLS service
F.All of the above
Answer: F

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NO.10 Based on the following output what will the vc-id be of any mesh-sdp bound to this service?
A.9000
B.1514
C.1000
D.0
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 4A0-101
Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Interior Routing Protocols and High Availability)
Questions et réponses: 177 Q&As

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NO.1 When a router receives an IP packet, but does not find a match in the routing table for the
destination IP address, what actions are performed by the router?
A. The packet is flooded out all router interfaces.
B. The packet is dropped and an ICMP unreachable message is sent back to the source.
C. The packet is silently discarded.
D. The packet is flooded out all interfaces and an ICMP unreachable message is sent.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following commands can be used to display the number of SPF computations
that have been performed on a router?
A. show router ospf area <area-id>
B. show router ospf neighbor
C. show router ospf interface
D. show router ospf status
Answer: A

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NO.3 Click the exhibit button.
What triggers convergence of the routing protocol when the link between switch 1 and switch 2
goes down?
A. Convergence is triggered when the adjacency between routers R1 and R2 drops as a result of
Hello timeouts. At this point, both routers R1 and R2 re-compute their link state database and send
updates to their adjacent routers. Once the process is complete for all routers, the networks have
converged.
B. Convergence is triggered when the physical interfaces between routers R1 and R2 go down. At
this point, both routers R1 and R2 re-compute their link state database and send updates to their
adjacent routers. Once the process is complete for all routers, the networks have converged.
C. Convergence will not be triggered because switches cannot run routing protocols between them.
D. Convergence is triggered when the switches notify the routers about the link state information.
At this point, both routers R1 and R2 re-compute their link state database and send updates to their
adjacent routers. Once the process is complete for all routers, the networks have converged
E. Convergence is triggered when an LSA is sent from router R1 to router R2 to indicate that the link
is down. At this point, both routers R1 and R2 re-compute their link state database and sendupdates
to their adjacent routers. Once the process is complete for all routers, the networks have converged.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Click the exhibit button.
What is the command to configure a static route on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR router R1 to reach
the network behind router R2?
A. configure router static-route 139.120.121.0/ 24 next-hop 138.120.199.2
B. configure router static-route 139.120.121.0/ 24 next-hop 138.120.199.1
C. configure router static-route 138.120.199.2 / 24 next-hop 138.120.199.1
D. configure router static-route 139.120.121.0/ 24 next-hop 139.120.121.2
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following statements describe the major features of OSPF? Choose two answers.
A. Fast reroute capability
B. Control traffic prioritization
C. Route redistribution
D. Traffic engineering extensions
E. Cut through forwarding
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 Click the exhibit button.
A static route is created on router R1, using the "static-route 0.0.0.0/ 0 next-hop 10.3.3.2"
command. What command can be used to test the static route on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. ping static 10.5.5.5
B. ping static 0.0.0.0/ 0
C. ping 10.5.5.5
D. ping 0.0.0.0
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following statements apply to link state protocol behavior? Choose three
answers.
A. Routers broadcast the entire route table to all neighbors.
B. Information about directly connected links is sent to all neighbors.
C. An adjacency database is maintained by each router.
D. The sequence number for an update is incremented as it is flooded from router to router.
E. The topological database is the same for all routers in a single area.
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.8 There is an IP host with IP address 10.2.3.1. A static route is created, using the "configure
router static-route 10.2.3.0/ 24 next-hop 10.1.2.1" command. What is the correct traceroute
command to test this static route on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. traceroute 10.2.3.1
B. traceroute 10.2.3.1 next-hop 10.1.2.1
C. traceroute next-hop 10.1.2.1
D. traceroute does not work on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR.
E. traceroute 10.1.2.1
Answer: A

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15. What is the default preference value for a static route in the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. 0
B. 5
C. 10
D. 15
Answer: B

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16. Which of the following statements regarding distance vectors protocols are true? (Choose
two answers).
A. RIPvl, RIPv2, and BGP are distance vector protocols.
B. OSPF and IS-IS are distance vector protocols.
C. Routing tables are exchanged between neighbors; however, no routing table is transmitted
beyond the immediate neighbor.
D. Distance vector protocols use the Dijkstra SPF algorithm.
E. Routers that participate in distance vector routing protocols maintain full knowledge of distant
routers and how they interconnect
Answer: A,C

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NO.9 Click the exhibit button.
Routers R1, R2, and R3 are running a classful routing protocol between them. Assuming that router
R1 advertises all directly connected networks, how will these networks be represented in router
R3's routing table?
A. Router R3's routing table can only contain one of the routes, which will result in route flapping.
B. Router R3's routing table will have one entry for 10.1.1.0/ 24 and one entry for 10.1.2.0/ 24.
C. The networks will be represented with one entry of 10.0.0.0/ 8 in router R3's routing table.
D. The networks will be represented with one entry of 10.0.0.0/ 24 in router R3's route table.
Answer: C

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NO.10 What are the default Hello and Dead timer intervals for OSPF on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. 5 and 15 seconds
B. 10 and 30 seconds
C. 5 and 20 seconds
D. 10 and 40 seconds
Answer: D

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NO.11 What causes an adjacency to change from down to two ways?
A. When a link state update is received in response to a link state request.
B. When a router receives a Hello packet that contains its own router ID in the neighbor list from a
neighbor.
C. When a router receives a database description packet from a neighbor.
D. When a link state acknowledgement is received in response to a link state update.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Click the exhibit button.
In the topology shown, router R1 is an ASBR configured to export external routes to OSPF. Assuming
that there are no stub networks, which of the following statements regarding type 4 LSA generation
is true?
A. Router R1 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to areas 0, 1, and 2.
B. Router R3 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to areas 0, 1, and 2.
C. Router R3 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to areas 0 and 2.
D. Router R3 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to area 0, and router R6 generates a type 4 LSA
that is flooded to area 2.
Answer: D

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NO.13 Static routing will be used in a network between a corporate head office, with many
connected networks, and a branch office, with one connection to the head office. Which of the
following best describes the likely configuration?
A. The corporate head office router will have a default route and the branch site will have a more
specific static route.
B. The corporate head office router and the branch office router will both have specific static routes.
C. The corporate head office router and the branch router will both have default routes.
D. The corporate head office router will have a more specific static route and the branch office
router will have a default route.
Answer: D

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NO.14 In an IP datagram, which of the following fields identifies the receiving application?
A. The protocol field of the transport layer header.
B. The port field of the transport layer header.
C. The protocol field of the network layer header.
D. The port field of the network layer address.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 4A0-106
Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Virtual Private Routed Networks)
Questions et réponses: 61 Q&As

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NO.1 Complete the following statement. In a VPRN, the label signaled by RSVP-TE is used to
____________________.
A. Identify the egress PE in the MPLS domain
B. Signal the egress VPRN ID
C. Identify the ingress PE in the MPLS domain
D. transport route updates between PEs
Answer: A

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NO.2 In a VPRN the PE device is configured to run which of the following protocols? (Choose three.)
A. MP-BGP for exchanging customer routes with other PEs
B. A routing protocol for exchanging customer routes with the CE
C. MPLS for exchanging labels with other provider core devices
D. MPLS for exchanging labels with the CE devices
E. Targeted LDP for exchanging VPRN labels with other PE devices
F. A label signaling protocol for defining transport tunnels between PE and CE devices
Answer: ABC

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NO.3 Choose the answer that best completes the following sentence. The CE device is typically configured
with ___________________________.
A. A single routing protocol for exchanging routes with both the internal customer routers and with the PE
B. MP-BGP to exchange routes with the PE.
C. MPLS and a routing protocol for the exchange of labels and routes with the PE
D. MPLS for exchanging labels with other CE devices
E. A routing protocol for exchanging routes with the internal customer routers and a routing protocol for
exchanging routes with the PE
Answer: E

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NO.4 In a traditional layer 3 VPN which of the following will be an issue when there is overlapping address
space between two customers? Choose the best answer.
A. There will be increased memory usage on the PE
B. There will be increased CPU utilization on the PE
C. The CE will reject the overlapping prefix
D. The PE will not recognize the prefixes as being different
E. There is no issue with overlapping address space in a traditional Layer 3 VPN
Answer: D

Alcatel-Lucent examen   4A0-106   4A0-106   4A0-106

NO.5 Which of the following terms also correctly describes a Layer 3 VPN? (Choose three)
A. VPRN
B. BGP/MPLS VPN
C. VLL
D. VPLS
E. IP-VPN
F. ePipe
Answer: ABE

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NO.6 What are the two primary problems the service provider must consider when providing traditional
Layer 3 VPN services using only a single common routing table in the provider core? (Choose two)
A. Memory exhaustion in the provider core
B. Route leaking between the customer networks
C. CPU utilization for route processing
D. Unwanted packet forwarding between customer networks
Answer: BD

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NO.7 What are the main functions of a Layer 3 VPN? (Choose three).
A. Distributing customer routing information between sites
B. Forwarding customer data packets
C. Providing an integrated billing solution
D. Maintaining separation between distinct customer networks
E. Allowing the implementation of Layer 3 devices in the provider core
Answer: ABD

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NO.8 When a Service Provider offers VPRN services to its customers, which of the following functions are
expected to be the responsibility of the Service Provider? (Choose three)
A. Distributing the customer generated labels between sites
B. Distributing the customer routing information between sitesDistributing the customer? routing
information between sites
C. Forwarding the customer originated data packets to the appropriate destination
D. Forwarding the provider originated data packets to the appropriate customer site
E. Providing secure layer 3 routing exchange between sites
Answer: BCE

Alcatel-Lucent   4A0-106 examen   4A0-106

NO.9 Complete the following statement. In a VPRN, the label signaled by RSVP-TE is used to
____________________.
A. Identify the egress PE in the MPLS domain
B. Signal the egress VPRN ID
C. Identify the ingress PE in the MPLS domain
D. transport route updates between PEs
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following statements are true regarding P devices in an MPLS VPRN? (Choose two.)
A. Participate in service provider core routing
B. P devices are not required to be MPLS enabled. MPLS is only required on the PE devices
C. Run a common routing protocol with the CE router
D. Must support MP-BGP
E. Do not have any connections to the CE
F. Must be aware of the VPRNs
Answer: AE

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Code d'Examen: 4A0-110
Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Advanced Troubleshooting)
Questions et réponses: 40 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following debug statements can be used to troubleshoot if the OSPF adjacency is staying
at xstart state? Select two answers.
A. debug router ospf rtm
B. debug router ospf packet dbdescr
C. debug router ospf neighbor
D. debug router ospf packet hello
E. debug router ospf spf
Answer: BC

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NO.2 Two routers are physically connected to each other over Ethernet port 1/1/1. Review the configuration
information shown below. What state should the OSPF neighbor be in?
A. INIT
B. EXCHANGE
C. EXSTART
D. FULL
E. No OSPF neighbor
Answer: E

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NO.3 Two routers are physically connected running ISIS. ISIS L2 adjacency is up and running but L1
adjacency is not up. Review the configuration information shown below:
Which of the following statement best describe the cause of the problem? Select one answer only.
A. The ISIS interface level is not configured on both routers
B. The ISIS interface type should be configured as point-to-point interfaces
C. ISIS System IDs are not configured on both routers
D. ISIS Area addresses are not configured on both routers
E. ISIS level capacity are not configured on both routers
Answer: D

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NO.4 Based on the following configuration, which of the following statements are true? Choose all that apply.
A. No OPSF adjacency found on Node 1
B. Full OSPF adjacency between Node-1 and Node-2
C. Full OSPF adjacency between Node-1 and Node-3
D. Full OSPF adjacency between Node-1 and Node-4
E. OSPF is enabled on Node 1
Answer: BE

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NO.5 Two routers are physically connected to each other over Ethernet port 1/1/1. Review the configuration
information below. What state should the OSPF neighbor be in?
A. INIT
B. EXCHANGE
C. EXSTART
D. FULL
E. No OSPF neighbor
Answer: D

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Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Scalable IP Networks)
Questions et réponses: 180 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the name for an organization that provides Internet services to its customers
A.A large corporation.
B.An ISP.
C.A home based business.
D.A content provider.
ANSWER: b

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NO.2 What kind of information can a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) client receive?
A.Details of the configuration settings of each router on the network.
B.A list of other DHCP clients.
C.IP addresses and their lease times.
D.Server time information
ANSWER: c

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NO.3 which of the following is the best description of well known ports?
A.Well known ports apply to routers only and are used for communication and control traffic. Well known
port numbers are assigned by IANA and can have any value.
B.Well known ports are used by TCP and UDP. Well known port numbers range from 1024 to 65535 and
are assigned by IANA.
C.Well known port numbers are used by both TCP and UDP. Well known port numbers range from 1 to
1023 and are assigned by IANA.
D.Well known ports numbers are used by TCP only. Well known port numbers are assigned by IANA and
can have any value.
ANSWER: c

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NO.4 Which organization first considered cross-platform networking support to be a necessity?
A.IBM.
B.US Military.
C.Alcatel-Lucent.
D.NASA.
E.Bell Labs
ANSWER: b

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NO.5 Kahn solved the problem of interconnecting different networks using different protocols by pioneering
a new protocol called TCP that was capable of:
A.Secure transmission of information.
B.Enforcing a constant packet size to avoid discards.
C.Allowing remote logins.
D.Providing host to host connectivity with global addressing.
ANSWER: d

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NO.6 How do protocols such as ATM and Frame-Relay support differentiating multiple customers or traffic
types on the same physical wire?
A.ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use Virtual Circuits to create logical
separation of traffic.
B.ATM and Frame-Relay are point-to-point protocols and do not support different customers or traffic type
on the same physical wire.
C.ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use VLAN's to create logical separation of
traffic.
D.ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use IP Header information to create logical
separation of traffic.
ANSWER: a

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NO.7 Which of the following best describes a repeater?
A.A passive device simply used to connect two or more cables. Does not generate or amplify any signals.
B.A device that receives and retransmits a signal out its ports, but does not do any Layer 2 analysis of the
data.
C.A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 2 destination address, makes a decision on
which ports the signal should be retransmitted.
D.A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 2 destination address, makes a decision on
which ports the signal should be retransmitted.
E.A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 3 destination address, makes a decision on
which ports the signal should be retransmitted.
ANSWER: b

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NO.8 Which statement accurately explains the purpose of the TCP protocol and what it provides?
A.The primary purpose of TCP is to provide reliable communications between application services.
B.The primary purpose of TCP is to provide unreliable communications between application services
C.The primary purpose of TCP is to provide IP routing between application services.
D.The primary purpose of TCP is to define the correct format for the application layer such as JPEG or
HTML.
ANSWER: a

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NO.9 Which of the following is an important advantage of protocol layering? (Choose two)
A.Controls distribution of IP addresses.
B.Simplifies protocol functionality.
C.Isolates changes in lower layers from upper layers.
D.Increases protocol operational efficiencies.
E.Layering adds to the fragmentation of the data
ANSWER: cd

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NO.10 The 201.148.26.0/24 network is subnetted using a /26 mask. How many subnets and host addresses
will you obtain with this mask?
A.4 subnets, 64 hosts
B.64 subnets, 4 hosts
C.4 subnets, 62 hosts
D.64 subnets, 2 hosts
E.6 subnets, 30 hosts
ANSWER: c

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NO.11 You are configuring your Alcatel-Lucent 7750SR Service Router from the Command Line Interface
(CLI), and after entering a lengthy command, wish to return directly to the ROOT context. Which control
command allows you to do this quickly?
A.Ctrl-z
B.Ctrl-c
C.Esc
D.Shift-Page Down
ANSWER: a

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NO.12 Which of the following statements best describes ARPANET?
A.ARPANET was an early packet switched network initially connecting 4 sites (Stanford, UC Santa
Barbara, UCLA, and U of Utah).
B.The mission of ARPANET was to connect packet switched networks and other diverse networks,
making an international network of networks.
C.ARPANET connected sites spread around the Hawaiian Islands to a central time-sharing computer on
the University of Hawaii campus.
D.ARPANET was based on the use of TCP/IP to interconnect diverse systems.
ANSWER: a

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NO.13 Which of the following are protocols belonging to the OSI suite of protocols? (Choose two)
A.OSPF
B.BGP
C.X.500
D.IS-IS
E.Ethernet
ANSWER: de

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NO.14 Choose two true statements that characterize Link State Routing
A.Routers send a copy of their routing table to their neighbors periodically.
B.Routers flood link information throughout the entire area.
C.Network converges quickly (within several seconds) after a topology change.
D.Routers do not have precise knowledge of the entire network topology.
ANSWER: cd

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NO.15 To transmit its segments of data across the network TCP uses the services of which layer
A.Application Layer.
B.Transport Layer.
C.IP Layer.
D.Data Link Layer
ANSWER: c

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NO.16 Which organization eventually became the standards body for IP and related protocols?
A.IEEE
B.IETF
C.NSFNET
D.ITU-T
E.APNIC
ANSWER: b

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NO.17 Which statement best describes how the internet evolved?
A.The internet emerged in the commercial world in the 1980s following the US militarys adoption of
TCP/IP in 1983.
B.The internet evolved from a military to a research to a commercial based network.
C.The internet remained primarily a research based network and was only commercially adopted in 2000
when the world wide web was conceived.
D.Internet service providers provided the services necessary for military based networks to evolve into
research and education based networks.
ANSWER: b

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NO.18 Which network was created to replace ARPANET?
A.INWG
B.ALOHANET
C.IETF
D.NSFNET
ANSWER: d

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NO.19 Which of the following is a feature of Layer 3?
A.Provides an universal addressing scheme
B.Ensures data is delivered across the Layer 2 network.
C.Provides reliable data transfers.
D.Provides a physical interface to the network.
ANSWER: a

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NO.20 The IANA is responsible for:
A.Intra-city ISP traffic.
B.Allocation of the global IP address space.
C.Allocating IP addresses for residential customer traffic.
D.Allocating North American IP addresses .
ANSWER: b

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Code d'Examen: 4A0-M02
Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Mobile Gateways for the LTE Evolved Packet Core )
Questions et réponses: 140 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the UE network attachment procedure?
A. The UE is served by an eNodeB.
B. The eNodeB selects one MME to serve the UE.
C. The MME selects one SGW to serve the UE.
D. The SGW selects one PGW to serve the UE
E. The PGW selects one PCRF server if required.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the EPS bearers?
A. The default bearer isinitiatedby either the UE or the PCRF.
B. The default bearer is always the first bearer established to an APN.
C. An AF server may initiate adedicatedbearer to a UE.
D. EPS bearers that connect a given UE to a single PGW may use different IP subnets.
E. The default bearer remains active throughout the lifetime of the APN connection.
Answer: A

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NO.3 The S5 is the interface used for the communication between the SGW and the PGW. Which of the
following transport protocols is used by this interface?
A. GTP/TCP
B. GTP/UDP
C. GTP/IP
D. GTP/SCTP
E. None of the above answers are correct
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the UE paging process?
A. The SGW performs downlink data buffering while the S1 bearer is being established.
B. The SGW initiates the paging messages towards the UE.
C. The PGW is not aware of the paging process.
D. The UE initiates the service request procedure once it receives the paging message.
E. The paging procedure is controlled by the MME.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following statements most accurately describes the MME?
A. The MME selects the SGW and the PGW for a given UE.
B. The MME is responsible for the bearer management.
C. The MME communicates with both the E-UTRAN and the EPC via GTP-C tunnels.
D. The MME performs the user authentication and authorization using the information provided by the
HSS
E. All of the above answers are correct.
F. Only answers A, B and D are correct.
Answer: F

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NO.6 In a 3G network, which of the following is used to build a PDP context between a UE and the GGSN
when a direct tunnel is not used?
A. An end-to-end GTP tunnel between the UE and the GGSN.
B. A Radio Access Bearer between the UE and the NodeB and a GTP tunnel between the NodeB and the
GGSN.
C. A Radio Access Bearer between the UE and the SGSN and a GTP tunnel between the SGSN and the
GGSN.
D. A Radio Access Bearer between the UE and the SGSN.
E. None of the above answers are correct.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Based on the information shown in the exhibit, when the SGW receives an IP packet from the UE,
which of the following is the GTP TEID value expected to be received in the GTP packet header?
A. 0xd05025
B. 0x4b00805
C. 0x21
D. 0x4b00825
E. None of the above answers are correct.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the S1-MME interface?
A. It is the control plane interface between the E-UTRAN and the MME.
B. It is used to signal the TEIDs for the S1 bearers between the eNodeB and the SGW.
C. The eNodeB receives the Paging messages over the S1-MME interface.
D. It is used for the management of the Radio Access Bearers.
E. It is based on the IP/UDP protocols.
Answer: E

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NO.9 There is an active GTP path between an Alcatel-Lucent SGW and an Alcatel-Lucent PGW, On the
SGW. Which of the following CLI commands is used to check the "Restart Count" value of the PGW?
A. show mobile-gateway serving ref-point-peers s5
B. show mobile-gateway serving ref-point-stats s5
C. show mobile-gateway serving bearer-stats s5
D. show mobile-gateway serving path-mgmt-stats s5
E. None of the above answers are correct.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following LTE interfaces are used for the communication of user data? (Choose one best
answer)
A. The S1-MME interface and the S11 interface.
B. The S1-U interface.
C. The S5 interface.
D. The S1-U interface, the S5 interface and the LTE-Uu interface.
E. Only answers A, B and C are correct.
F. Only answers B and C are correct.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the IP connectivity between a UE and a PDN?
A. A UE gets an IPv4 address and/or an IPv6 prefix per APN.
B. A PGW forwards the UE's IP packets to the PDN based on the address of the PDN server.
C. When a UE sends an IP packet to a PDN over the EPC core, the eNodeB forwards
theencapsulatedpacket to the SGW by looking into its IP routing table to determine how to reach the PDN
server.
D. The SGW forwards the UE's IP packets to the PGW based on the address of the PDN server.
E. Only answers C and D are correct.
F. Only answers A and B are correct.
Answer: F

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NO.12 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the eNodeB?
A. The eNodeBs maybeinterconnectTEIDwith each other via anX2 interface.
B. The eNodeB is an element of the EPC core.
C. The eNodeBs areconnectedto the EPC core via the S1 interface.
D. During an IMSI attach, the eNodeB selects an MME to service the UE.
E. The eNodeB performs the compression and encryption of the user data stream.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following interfaces is not using the GTP-C protocol?
A. The X2 interface.
B. The S1-U interface.
C. The S4 interface.
D. The S5 interface.
E. The SGi interface.
Answer: E

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NO.14 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the Tracking Area (TA)?
A. A TA is a set of eNodeBs that are defined by a UE itself.
B. A TA is the smallest geographical area in which a UE can roam without performing a Tracking Area
Update (TAU) other than periodic TAU as required.
C. A Tracking Area Identity (TAI) is used to identify each tracking area.
D. The Tracking Area Identity (TAI) is assigned by the service provider.
E. One TA may be served by one or more than one MME.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following most accurately identifies a GTP tunnel on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 MG by
default?
A. ATEID
B. The System IP address
C. A UDP port number
D. ATEIDand the System IP address
E. ATEID, the System IP address and a UDP port number
Answer: E

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NO.16 Which of the following statements most accurately describes the Diameter protocol?
A. The Diameter is a peer-to-peer protocol that uses the TCP or SCTP as the transport protocol.
B. A Diameter peer could act as a Diameter client or a Diameter server to its remote peer.
C. The Alcatel-Lucent 7750 PGW acts as a Diameter client to the PCRF server via the Gx interface.
D. The Diameter protocol uses TCP and SCTP port number 3868.
E. All of the above answers are correct.
F. Only answers A and B are correct.
Answer: E

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NO.17 A UE needs to get an IP address before it can communicate to any PDN over the LTE network. Which of
the following statements are FALSE regarding the process of the IP address allocation? (Choose two)
A. A PGW may obtain an IP address from a RADIUS server and assign it to the UE.
B. A PGW may assign the IP address from its local address pools.
C. An SGW may obtain a static IP address from the HSS server and assign it to the UE.
D. An SGW may obtain an IP address from a RADIUS server and assign it to the UE.
E. A PGW may obtain an IP address from a DHCP server and assign it to the UE.
Answer: C,D

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NO.18 An Alcatel-Lucent SGW is only connected to an Alcatel-Lucent PGW. Based on the information shown
in the exhibit, how many GTP-C tunnels are established between the SGW and the PGW?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 6
Answer: E

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NO.19 Based on the information shown in the exhibit, which of the following is the PLMN ID?
A. 302
B. 720
C. 123456789
D. 9876543
E. 30201613
F. 302720
Answer: F

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NO.20 Which of the following most accurately describes the messages used to manage a Diameter
connection path?
A. The Capabilities-Exchange message
B. The Device-Watchdog message
C. The Credit-Control message
D. The Disconnect-Peer message
E. All of the above answers are correct
F. Only answers A, B and D are correct
Answer: F

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