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Code d'Examen: 3M0-700

Nom d'Examen: 3COM (Certified IP Telephony Specialist)

Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two are accurate statements? (Choose two.)
A. NBX 100 supports 48 VTLs
B. NBX V5000 supports 48 VTLs
C. NBX V3000 supports 48 VTLs
D. NBX V5000 supports 72 VTLs
Answer: BC

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NO.2 Which four are features of the NBX QSIG Basic Service support? (Choose four.)
A. Recommended for use on a PSTN public network
B. Passes Caller ID information across QSIG tie lines
C. NBX system only functions in Slave Mode operation
D. Used to nest traditional PBX systems behind an NBX
E. Supports fractional QSIG on the NBX Digital Line Cards
F. Optimized for inter-PBX signaling, useful for implementing tie trunks
G. Connects 3rd party PBX systems with Master Mode support to an NBX system
Answer: BCFG

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NO.3 The NBX Dial Plan supports Direct Inward Dialing/Dialed Number Identification Service (DID/DNIS).
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which three are maintenance alert features on the NBX system? (Choose three.)
A. Can send alert to voicemail
B. Can send alert to a pager or email
C. Can send alert to 3rd party voice messaging systems
D. Can be configured to send alerts to up to 15 mailboxes
E. Can be configured to send an alert for any physical device failure
F. Maintenance alert function is supported on the NBX 100 Communications System only
Answer: ABD

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NO.5 How do NBX phones prioritize audio traffic?
A. NBX phones forward all voice packets to IEEE 802.1p aware hubs
B. NBX phones tag voice packets using DiffServ for all LAN communication
C. NBX phones use VLAN-tagged frames with the priority level automatically set to 6
D. NBX phones place audio traffic into a priority queue within the NCP, forwarding all voice traffic before
forwarding data packets
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which three are true statements concerning Silence Suppression? (Choose 3.)
A. Enabling Silence Suppression prioritizes voice traffic
B. Can be enabled or disabled for the entire system only
C. Can be enabled or disabled only for individual telephones
D. Enabling Silence Suppression reduces network traffic
E. Can be enabled or disabled for the entire system, or for individual telephones and line card ports
F. A device that detects silence in a conversation will not send any packets to the other device during the
period of silence
G. A device that detects silence in conversation sends a small packet with a "silence indicator,"rather than
a full packet of "digitized silence"
Answer: DEG

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NO.7 Which two are features of the NBX NetSet Administration Utility? (Choose two.)
A. Allows users to sign on with a username of "user" and use their voicemail password for access
B. Is found on 3Com's NBX systems, as well as, licensed 3rd party Ethernet-based telephony systems
C. Can be accessed through the default IP address of 192.168.1.190.
D. Can be accessed through the default IP address of 192.168.1.191.
E. Allows the administrator to sign on with a username of "administrator" and a password of "0000" for
access
Answer: CE

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NO.8 Which four Call Forward user settings are available to a user logged into NetSet on a NBX
Communication System? (Choose four.)
A. Forward calls to voicemail box
B. Forward calls to an e-mail inbox
C. Disconnect (no forwarding) calls
D. Forward calls to another phone number
E. Forward calls to an Automated Attendant
F. Do not ring, which places the caller into voice mail
G. Forward calls to the LCD Directory so the caller can contact another employee if they choose
Answer: ACDE

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NO.9 A manager at extension 3002 has asked you to setup a NBX Communication System to allow an
assistant at extension 1010 to filter calls. You have decided the best way to do this is Bridged Station
Appearance. You have already setup the primary phones button mappings. Which is the correct
extension number to add to the secondary phone Bridged Extension Number Field?
A. 1010
B. 1010-2
C. 3002
D. 3002-2
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which three best describe how members Login/Logout of a Hunt Group? (Choose three.)
A. Group members can login and logout as their schedule requires
B. A forced login member is always logged in whether they are at their phone or not
C. To login/logout a user only needs to pickup their phone and enter their voice mail password
D. Administrator can set optional automatic logout to force a logout if an incoming call is not
Answered at a phone
E. All members must login only once during the day. They are automatically logged out at the end of the
day based on the NBX System Business Time definition
F. A dynamic login member must login at the start of a day and will only need to login again if they are
logged out after 15 minutes pass between phone calls
Answer: ABD

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NO.11 Which three office-to-office and/or office-to-remote user call options are supported by the NBX systems?
(Choose three.)
A. With a single NBX system at HQ, users can call to/from a remote office across the data network WAN
link using Layer 3 IP communications
B. With a NBX Network Call Processor (NCP) and NBX ConneXtions Gateways at each site, users can
call to/from the sites via a Virtual Tie Line (VTL)
C. With a single NBX system at HQ and pcXset on the remote office PC, the remote user can call to/from
HQ via any WAN link using TCP/IP Layer 4 communications
D. With a NBX Network Call Processor (NCP) at each location, users can call to/from the sites via a
Virtual Tie Line (VTL) using IP On-the-Fly or a Standard IP license
E. With a NBX system and NBX ConneXtions Gateways at each location, users can call to/from the sites
via a WAN link that supports IP protocol, for example, VPN, T1, E1 and Frame Relay
Answer: ADE

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NO.12 Which three are prioritization mechanisms used with the NBX Communication Systems? (Choose
three.)
A. IP TOS
B. Diff Serv
C. IEEE 802.3
D. IEEE 802.1p
E. ANSI 96/RS232
Answer: ABD

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NO.13 Which three best describe PRI QSIG? (Choose three.)
A. For use on PSTN only
B. Is a proprietary 3Com protocol
C. Designed for IP-PBX to TAPI Server
D. For use on private lines, leased lines or VPN only
E. Optimized for inter-PBX signaling for tie line support
F. Requires clocking (Master mode) by one end station (PBX)
Answer: DEF

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NO.14 Which of the following terms are associated with Emergency 911?
A. 911 Database
B. ACT -Automatic Caller Tracking
C. PSAP-Public Safety Access Point
D. ALI -Automatic Location Identification
E. ANI-Automatic Number Identification
F. PEAP -Public Emergency Access Point
Answer: ACDE

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NO.15 Which four are features of the NBX Analog Line Card? (Choose four.)
A. An NBX V5000 chassis supports only one Analog Line card at a time
B. The NBX Auto Discover Line Cards function can be used to find newly installed Analog Line Cards
C. In Key System Mode, CO lines connected to an Analog Line Card can be mapped to one or more
telephones
D. Its Power Failure Jack provides access to the telephone CO in case of a NBX power failure
E. By default, when a port is mapped to multiple telephones, calls will ring at the lowest extension first,
then to the next extension, until the call is
Answered
F. In PBX System Mode, CO lines connected to an Analog Line Card are pooled and allocated by the Call
Processor for use by any phone for outbound calls
G. In Hybrid Mode, incoming calls go to an Auto Attendant only and CO lines are pooled and allocated by
the Call Processor for use by any phone on the system
Answer: BCDF

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NO.16 Which four are characteristics or requirements for NBX Bridge Station Appearance (BSA) assuming
only 3102 business phones are used in the customer location? (Choose four.)
A. Maps a primary phone to a secondary phone
B. Only need to configure the primary phone settings
C. Up to 16 extensions can be mapped to a common secondary phone
D. To configure BSA settings select Device Configuration / Telephones then select Button Mappings
E. Either phone can
Answer a call, as incoming primary-phone calls appear on primary and secondary phone
F. Incoming calls to primary phone are automatically transferred to secondary phone based on
time-of-day settings
Answer: ACDE

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NO.17 Which two devices are not supported by an NBX Analog Terminal Card (ATC) or Analog Terminal
Adapter (ATA)? (Choose two.)
A. Modem
B. FAX machine
C. Cordless phone
D. Credit card reader
E. External bell or pager
F. Standard telephone that requires a DTMF connection
Answer: AD

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NO.18 Which two are features of an NBX Calling Group? (Choose two.)
A. Member phones ring simultaneously for incoming calls
B. Calling Groups are the same as NBX Key Mode configuration
C. Up to 100 Calling Groups can be configured on an NBX 100 system
D. NBX administrator can define "ring progression" for a Calling Group
E. Member login/logout password is defined by NBX administrator using NetSet
Answer: AE

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NO.19 How does the NBX administrator load a local country Dial Plan, for example, Norway or Portugal?
A. Dial Plan / Tables/ User-Defined File ?select country and click Import
B. Dial Plan / Operations/ User-Defined File ?select country and click Import
C. Dial Plan / Tables/ Default File ?select country from drop-down menu and click Import
D. Dial Plan / Operations/ Default File ?select country from drop-down menu and click Import
Answer: D

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NO.20 What is the easiest way for the NBX system administrator to set up calling permissions and/or
restrictions for a group of users?
A. Define a Type of Service (ToS) and then assign the ToS to each user
B. Define a Class of Service (CoS) and then assign the CoS to each user
C. Define a User Configuration and then assign the Configuration to each user
D. Define a Type of Service (ToS), define a new group for the users and then assign the group to the new
ToS
E. Define a Class of Service (CoS), define a new group for the users and then assign the group to the new
CoS
Answer: B

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Nom d'Examen: SPSS (IBM SPSS Modeler Professional Certification)

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NO.1 Which outlier treatment is not available in the Quality tab of the Data Audit output?
A. Coerce
B. Nullify
C. Recode
D. Discard
Answer: C

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NO.2 Generally speaking, to modify values in columns of working data file, you would use nodes
from which palette or menu group?
A. Record Ops
B. Field Ops
C. Export
D. Sources
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which nodes are best suited for revealing relationship between categorical (nominal, ordinal)
fields? (Select all that apply)
A. Means node
B. Matrix node
C. Distribution node
D. Table node
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 Which mode is not available In the Auto Numeric node?
A. Chaid
B. Logistic
C. Neural Net
D. Regression
Answer: C

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NO.5 The set Random seed option on the sample node is required if you want to draw the same
random sample with the same records more than once.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: PC0-001

Nom d'Examen: Peoplecert (ITIL 2011 Foundation )

Questions et réponses: 131 Q&As

Code d'Examen: CMS7

Nom d'Examen: Peoplecert (ITIL V3 Foundation )

Questions et réponses: 370 Q&As

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NO.1 Which one of the following contains information that is passed to service transition to enable
the
implementation of a new service?
A. A service option
B. A service transition package (STP)
C. A service design package (SDP)
D. A service charter
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which process is responsible for the availability, confidentiality and integrity of data?
A. Service catalogue management
B. Service asset and configuration management
C. Change management
D. Information security management
Answer: D

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NO.3 The remediation plan should be evaluated at what point in the change lifecycle?
A. Before the change is approved
B. Immediately after the change has failed and needs to be backed out
C. After implementation but before the post implementation review
D. After the post implementation review has identified a problem with the change
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following is an enabler of best practice?
A. Standards
B. Technology
C. Academic research
D. Internal experience
Answer: B

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NO.5 What type of services are NOT directly used by the business but are required by the service
provider to deliver customer facing services?
A. Business services
B. Component services
C. Supporting services
D. Customer services
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which statement should NOT be part of the value proposition for Service Design?
A. Reduced total cost of ownership
B. Improved quality of service
C. Improved Service alignment with business goals
D. Better balance of technical skills to support live services
Answer: D

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NO.7 In which document would you expect to see an overview of actual service achievements
against
targets?
A. Operational level agreement(OLA)
B. Capacity plan
C. Service level agreement(SLA)
D. SLA monitoring chart(SLAM)
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following identify the purpose of business relationship management?
1. To establish and maintain a business relationship between service provider and customer
2. To identify customer needs and ensure that the service provider is able to meet
A. Both of the above
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. Neither of the above
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following is the BEST reason for categorizing incidents?
A. To establish trends for use in problem management and other IT service management (ITSM)
activities
B. To ensure service levels are met and breaches of agreements are avoided
C. To enable the incident management database to be partitioned for greater efficiency
D. To identify whether the user is entitled to log an incident for this particular service
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services
have met their targets?
A. Continual service improvement
B. Change management
C. Service level management
D. Availability management
Answer: C

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Nom d'Examen: Esri (ArcGIS Desktop Professional)

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Nom d'Examen: Esri (ArcGIS Desktop Associate)

Questions et réponses: 96 Q&As

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NO.1 An ArcGIS user wants to share layer and attribute information in a map document with a colleague
who does NOT have ArcGIS Desktop
The ArcGIS user must export in which format in order for the colleague to view the information?
A. PDF
B. SVG
C. PNG
D. BMP
Answer: A

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NO.2 An ArcGIS user is calculating the mean slope per watershed using the Block Statistics geoprocessing
tool. Which ArcGIS Desktop extension should be enabled to use this tool?
A. Geostatistical Analyst
B. Spatial Analyst
C. Network Analyst
D. Schematics
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which tool from the ArcGIS System toolbox allows the option to create a schema-only layer package
(Ipk) in ArcGIS Desktop?
A. Package Layer
B. Export Replica Schema
C. Package Map
D. Create Schematic Folder
Answer: A

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NO.4 The ArcGIS user works with a map document that contains a very detailed image that takes several
seconds to draw when panning.
Which action can the ArcGIS user take that will improve the performance when panning in ArcMap?
A. put the image layer in a group laver
B. set the reference scale on the image layer
C. put the image laver in a basemap layer
D. make the image layer selectable
Answer: D

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NO.5 When should an ArcGIS user change the reference scale of an existing map annotation?
A. when the user adds a scale bar to the map layout
B. when the user brings data into the map that has a projected coordinate system
C. when the user creates a new feature linked annotation feature class and adds it to a new data frame for
editing
D. when the user uses the same map template to create a second map that contains data from a different
geographic area
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 An ArcGIS user has two feature classes. One is spatially inaccurate but contains accurate tabular data,
the other is spatially accurate but contains inaccurate tabular data. The ArcGIS user needs a single
feature class that is spatially and tabularly accurate
Which tool should the ArcGIS user employ to accomplish this?
A. Join Field
B. Attribute Transfer
C. Copy Features
D. Load Data
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which two spatial query operators will select point features that are surrounded by polygon features?
(Select two)
A. Completely Contain
B. Are Completely Within
C. Share a Line Segment With
D. Intersect
E. Touch the Boundary Of
Answer: A,D

Esri examen   EADA10   EADA10

NO.8 Which limit is set for file geodatabase name length for ArcGIS Desktop.?
A. no limit
B. limited to 32 characters
C. limited to 255 characters
D. limited to the number of characters the operating system allows in a folder name
Answer: C

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NO.9 An ArcGIS user is analyzing an earthquake dataset to investigate the relationship between magnitude
and duration of incidents. The user displays magnitude on an x-axis and duration on a y-axis.
Which type of graph is the user employing?
A. box plot
B. histogram
C. scatter plot
D. bar
Answer: A

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NO.10 When is a transformation required while projecting data?
A. when the input data source is a network
B. when the input and output geographic coordinate systems are different
C. when the input and output spatial references are different
D. when the input feature class has an unknown spatial reference
Answer: B

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NO.11 An ArcGIS user is working within a map document and has realized that the Table of Contents is no
longer available. Which menu must the user choose to add the Table of Contents to his map document?
A. Insert menu
B. View menu
C. Edit menu
D. Windows menu
E. Add menu
Answer: A

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NO.12 An ArcGIS user creates a locator from a polyline feature class that exists in a feature dataset.
Where can the locator be saved?
A. in a feature dataset
B. in a Windows folder
C. in a topology dataset
D. in a feature class
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which two actions can be taken to repair an.mxd file with broken data sources in ArcMap? (Choose
two)
A. right click the layer(s) in the Table of Contents and select Repair Data Source
B. repair the layer sources in the Map Document Properties
C. use the Repair Data Sources geoprocessing tool
D. use the Set Data Source option from Layer Properties
Answer: B,D

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NO.14 An ArcGIS user is required to create a new feature class output of rivers of California Currently, the user
has a feature class of the USA rivers and a feature class of the California state boundary.
Which process would generate the necessary output?
A. Union tool with the USA rivers and California state boundary selected for input features
B. Clip tool with the USA rivers as input features and California state boundary as clip features
C. Union tool with the USA rivers as input and California state boundary as output feature class
D. Clip tool with the California state boundary as input features and USA rivers as clip features
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which two factors should be considered when determining appropriateness of a dataset for a task?
(Choose two)
A. display colors
B. scale of data
C. geometry type
D. feature class names
E. configuration keywords
Answer: B,D

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NO.1 Why would a customer use thin provisioning to manage their storage?
A. to provision more physical capacity to a LUN than is actually needed
B. to cluster LUNs of similar type into one management entity
C. to add more volumes to a management domain than are supported by hardware
D. to create large virtual volumes based on a small amount of physical capacity
Answer: D

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NO.2 Your customer calls to discuss their SVM servers and their consolidation project's impact on their SVM
server port count. They are moving from a pair of dual controllers with four ports to one dual controller with
eight ports. Which statement accurately describes what the impact will be?
A. They will need four more ports on each SVM server.
B. They will need four fewer ports on each SVM server.
C. They cannot change the SVM server's port count.
D. They will need eight more ports on each SVM server.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are three benefits of using thin provisioning? (Choose three.)
A. reclaiming trapped capacity
B. creating empty volumes to reserve capacity
C. expanding volume capacity automatically
D. making multiple copies of volumes for backups
E. saving money on overall storage costs
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.4 A long time customer just called requesting your help justifying SVM as they virtualize their data center
using VMware. What are three reasons SVM's storage services would benefit this customer? (Choose
three.)
A. Rapid application recovery is easier with SVM's snapshot capabilities.
B. SVM will make provisioning easy and fast.
C. Disaster recovery will be less expensive than using traditional methods.
D. SVM will eliminate the need for tape.
E. SVM will automatically size storage to fit the data.
Answer: A,B,C

LSI   certification L50-503   L50-503   L50-503

NO.5 Which statement describes tiered storage?
A. An infrastructure designed to lower the overall cost of storage by placing volumes on "fit for purpose"
storage based on defined cost, availability, and performance requirements.
B. An infrastructure designed to place data on the storage devices that have the lowest price per
megabyte ratio.
C. An infrastructure designed to place data on different storage devices to ensure a heterogeneous
model.
D. An infrastructure designed to place data on different storage devices to ensure a homogeneous model.
Answer: A

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NO.6 How can SVM's centralized management provide better performance?
A. by allocating capacity across RAID arrays
B. by striping volumes across RAID arrays
C. by mirroring volumes across RAID arrays
D. by provisioning additional servers
Answer: B

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NO.7 A long time customer and SVM prospect just called requesting your help to virtualize their data center
using VMware. What are three ways that SVM's snapshot capabilities will help this customer? (Choose
three.)
A. SVM snapshots will eliminate tape from the customer's environment.
B. SVM makes it possible to keep the point-in-time snapshots online for extended periods of time and to
recover from them quickly.
C. SVM snapshots can eliminate the need to install backup agents on every virtual machine.
D. SVM snapshots will protect from physical failures.
E. SVM snapshots can be used to reduce time required to stage, test, and debug software applications.
Answer: B,C,E

LSI examen   L50-503   L50-503

NO.8 What are two ways that SVM supports consolidation? (Choose two.)
A. SVM can reserve space for future use on a LUN-by-LUN basis.
B. SVM can build RAID structures for enhanced data protection.
C. SVM can migrate data from multiple storage arrays onto a single storage array.
D. SVM can make snapshots of volume groups that are spread across multiple storage arrays.
Answer: C,D

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NO.9 An SVM prospect just called requesting that you virtualize their data center using VMware. What are
three ways that SVM's volume management capabilities will help this customer? (Choose three.)
A. SVM allows users to quickly and efficiently create and manage volumes for each of the virtual
machines.
B. SVM eliminates the need to deal with ongoing LUN management at the array level.
C. SVM will prevent the virtual servers from running out of space.
D. SVM allows storage be provisioned and reallocated after use with the same simplicity as the virtual
servers.
E. SVM will size the volumes to the actual data size.
Answer: A,B,D

LSI examen   L50-503   L50-503   L50-503 examen

NO.10 Your SVM customer calls with questions about performance tuning in their VMware environment. One
of their storage arrays is not running fast enough to support the application for several days each month.
What would you recommend?
A. Buy a faster storage array and move the data with multiView.
B. Use multiCopy to copy the data to a different storage tier, stop the application and remount the data to
the copy.
C. Back up the data off a snapshot and restore it to a faster array.
D. Use multiMigrate to move the application's data to a higher performing storage tier for the busy days.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Your customer calls to discuss their DPMs and their consolidation project's impact on their DPM port
count. They are moving from a pair of dual controllers with four ports to one dual controller with eight ports.
Which statement accurately describes what they should do.?
A. They will need four more ports on each DPM.
B. They will need four fewer ports on each DPM.
C. They will need eight more ports on each DPM.
D. They will not need to change their DPM port count.
Answer: D

LSI   L50-503   L50-503   L50-503   L50-503

NO.12 What are two recommended ways of organizing pools? (Choose two.)
A. by host
B. by RAID level
C. by DPM
D. by users
Answer: B,D

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NO.13 What are two functions of the Data Path Module? (Choose two.)
A. DPM processes control frames.
B. DPM processes data frames.
C. DPM manages metadata.
D. DPM translates addresses.
Answer: B,D

LSI   L50-503   L50-503

NO.14 What are three functions of the SVM server? (Choose three.)
A. The SVM server processes control frames.
B. The SVM server processes data frames.
C. The SVM server manages metadata.
D. The SVM server translates addresses.
E. The SVM server moves data.
Answer: A,C,E

LSI   L50-503   L50-503   L50-503

NO.15 When moving existing LUNs into a pool, which feature would you use?
A. SVM multiCopy
B. SVM multiMirror
C. SVM multiView
D. SVM disk import
Answer: D

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NO.16 A warehousing company is in the process of a changeover to a new supplier thus switching out their
inventory. During this changeover, the business requires the highest performance of the inventory
database application. This database currently resides on Tier 3 storage. The customer's Tier 1 storage
has 15000 RPM Fibre Channel drives while the Tier 3 storage has 7200 RPM SATA drives. What is the
SVM solution for this customer?
A. Use the multi-pathing architecture to zone the host dedicated to the Tier 1 storage and zone a separate
host dedicated to Tier 3.
B. Non-disruptively promote the volumes from the Tier 3 storage to the Tier 1 storage before the
changeover and demote the volumes back to Tier 3 when the changeover is complete.
C. Define data policies which will automatically migrate data to Tier 1 and Tier 3 storage levels providing
instant tiering.
D. Non-disruptively place all of the 15000 RPM drives in one array and all of the 7200 RPM drives in
another array thus automatically tiering your storage to different workloads.
Answer: B

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NO.17 Your client is concerned about disaster recovery. You are explaining that SVM can recover from both
physical and logical failures positioning the fact that the majority of failures are actually logical. What
would be a good example for your client?
A. file deletion
B. hardware failure
C. loss of a site due to a disaster
D. split-path architecture
Answer: A

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NO.18 When consolidating onto a new storage platform, what actually moves the data?
A. the Data Path Module
B. the SVM server
C. the storage array
D. the SAN switch
Answer: B

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NO.19 What is an advantage of using thin provisioning over traditional capacity provisioning?
A. A thin volume serves up only the data blocks called for by a read or write request.
B. A thin volume automatically provisions additional capacity for large I/O read requests.
C. A thin volume holds only the changes (writes) made by hosts to the thin volume.
D. A thin volume migrates data from an existing LUN into a new pool.
Answer: C

LSI   L50-503   L50-503 examen

NO.20 In an IT center with several different vendors storage arrays, virtualized networked storage with SVM
provides migration of data to less expensive tiers of storage by doing what?
A. Pooling the storage into a server virtualization model whereby different servers can emulate hosts and
tier the data.
B. Pooling the storage into a networked virtualization model zoning the virtualized storage utilizing
third-party tools.
C. Pooling the storage across different vendors?storage arrays into a centralized pool and then assigning
different applications and tiers to different pools.
D. Pooling the storage across different vendors?storage arrays into assigned volume groups and use
virtual servers to tier the data.
Answer: C

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Aruba ACMP ACMP-6-1 ACMP-6.1 AWMP ACMP_6.1, de formation et d'essai

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Questions et réponses: 103 Q&As

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Nom d'Examen: Aruba (Aruba Certified Mobility Professional 6.1)

Questions et réponses: 180 Q&As

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NO.1 Which technical specifications of the antenna should be considered during selection of an antenna?
A. Frequency range
B. Supported data rates and modulation technologies
C. Polarization
D. Gain
E. Encryption modes
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.2 What limit does receiver sensitivity describe?
A. the maximum RSSI to decode a packet at a specific data rate
B. the minimum RSSI to decode a packet at a specific data rate
C. the receive signal level strength, which is always the same for each rate
D. the maximum output transmit power for receivers that are in range
E. the maximum RSSI to decode a packet at a specific data rate (5 - 45.45%)
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the maximum percentage obstruction of the first Fresnel zone in a point to point link?
A. 35%
B. 40%
C. 50%
D. 60%
Answer: B

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NO.4 What effect on RSSI does antenna polarization of the receiver cause?
A. an increase in RSSI when polarized the same as the transmitter
B. an increase in RSSI when polarized exactly opposite from the transmitter
C. no affect to the signal, if the antenna beamwidth are properly aligned.
D. no effect if the deployment is within 30 degrees latitude of the equator
Answer: A

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NO.5 Consider a radio configured for 20dBm conducted power connected to a 3dbi antenna.
What is the resulting EIRP in mW?
A. 100 mW
B. 200 mW
C. 150 mW
D. 250 mW
Answer: B

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NO.6 What are the recommended deployment scenarios for MST200.?
A. Part of a point to point link
B. Providing access to mobile clients
C. As a core node in a large mesh
D. As an edge node in a mesh
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 A radio with 100 mW of TX power is connected through a 50-foot cable with 3 dB of loss to an antenna
with 10 dBi of gain. What is the EIRP in mW?
A. 100 mW
B. 250 mW
C. 500 mW
D. 1 W
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which statement about Equivalent Isotropically Radiated Power (EIRP) is true?
A. EIRP is the path loss from the transmitter to the receiver in dB
B. EIRP is equal to ((transmit power + antenna gain) - connector and cable loss)
C. EIRP is not important because local regulations do not limit transmit power
D. EIRP is measured in relation to a spherical isotropic radiator
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which statement is most correct and should be considered in a typical handheld client Wi-Fi access
mesh design?
A. The upstream and downstream link budgets between clients and mesh routers are symmetrical.
B. Client devices typically broadcast at higher EIRP than mesh routers.
C. Client EIRP and receive sensitivity is generally the limiting factor for range.
D. Mesh backhaul links and client access should all be on the same channel to maximize connectivity.
Answer: C

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NO.10 In an Aruba mesh design which mesh scenarios are valid?
A. Point-to-point
B. Point-to-multipoint (hub and spoke)
C. Point-to-point-to-point (linear)
D. Full mesh (redundant links)
E. All of the above
Answer: E

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NO.11 Which of these statements is correct in regards to Fresnel zone and mesh network design? Choose all
that apply.
A. Mesh network design does not need to account for Fresnel zone.
B. Fresnel zone clearance of at least 60% is required for mesh radio links.
C. Fresnel zone only comes into play when designing Wi-Fi client coverage.
D. Fresnel zone, Free Space Path Loss, EIRP and receive sensitivity are all factors that should be
considered.
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 What is the Aruba recommended mounting arrangement for a pair of identical omnidirectional antennas
in an outdoor deployment using 802.11n?
A. Over and under
B. One horizontal and one vertical
C. Any arrangement that separates the antennas by 45 degrees
D. Install the two antennas far apart
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following statements is the best answer regarding lightning arrestors?
A. when installing where lightning is common
B. when installing where power surges are common
C. always, because the outdoor environment is unpredictable
D. whenever the appropriate regulatory agency requires them
Answer: C

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NO.14 In RF mathematics, 1 Watt of power equals what measurement of dBm?
A. 1
B. 10
C. 20
D. 30
E. 100
Answer: D

Aruba   AWMP examen   AWMP

NO.15 When RSSI is increased by 6 dB, how many times approximately does the signal strength increase by?
A. 1 time
B. 2 times
C. 8 times
D. 4 times
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 9A0-034

Nom d'Examen: Adobe (Adobe Acrobat Professional 6.0 Product)

Questions et réponses: 99 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 9A0-019

Nom d'Examen: Adobe (Adobe Photoshop 6.0 Product Proficiency)

Questions et réponses: 115 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 9A0-092

Nom d'Examen: Adobe (Flash CS4 ACE Certification )

Questions et réponses: 90 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 9A0-901

Nom d'Examen: Adobe (Flash Lite 1.1 Mobile Developer Certification Exam)

Questions et réponses: 108 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 9A0-080

Nom d'Examen: Adobe (Adobe Captivate 3 ACE Exam)

Questions et réponses: 92 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 9A0-066

Nom d'Examen: Adobe (Adobe ColdFusion 8 ACE Exam )

Questions et réponses: 122 Q&As

9A0-092 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/9A0-092.html

NO.1 Which class must a Document class extend in ActionScript 3.0?
Select the best response.
A. EventDispatcher
B. Sprite
C. Document
D. A Document class is not required to extend any specific class.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which is an advantage of using the Document class as implemented in ActionScript 3?
Select the best response.
A. You no longer have to write any code in any frame on the main timeline.
B. The Document class is the final code executed in any SWF file.
C. Use of the Document class prevents the need for external ActionScript files.
D. The Document class cannot contain any functions, allowing for decentralized storage.
Answer: A

Adobe   9A0-092   9A0-092   9A0-092

NO.3 You want to import a resolution-independent image asset directly into Flash CS4.
Which image asset type should you use?
Select the best response.
A. AI
B. JPG
C. SVG
D. PSD
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which keyword is associated with creating subclasses?
Select the best response.
A. implements
B. extends
C. inherits
D. subclass
Answer: B

Adobe examen   9A0-092   9A0-092   9A0-092

NO.5 You want to load external text into a Flash movie. Which two steps should you complete? (Choose
two.)
Select all that apply.
A. Create a textfield in Flash and set the text type to Dynamic Text and assign it a variable name.
B. Create a textfield in Flash and set the text type to Input Text and assign it a variable name.
C. Create a textfield in Flash and set the text type to Static Text and assign it a variable name.
D. Use the loadVariables action.
E. Use the loadMovie action.
Answer: AD

certification Adobe   9A0-092 examen   certification 9A0-092   9A0-092   9A0-092 examen

NO.6 Which image type will perform best in a Flash Movie?
Select the best response.
A. JPG
B. Vector Graphics
C. Shape Primitive
D. Path
Answer: A

Adobe   9A0-092 examen   certification 9A0-092   9A0-092

NO.7 You want to use the same static graphic multiple times in an animation.
Which image asset type should you use to optimize the animation?
Select the best response.
A. Vector
B. Bitmap
C. SVG
D. Tween
Answer: B

certification Adobe   9A0-092 examen   certification 9A0-092   9A0-092   9A0-092

NO.8 Which image asset should be imported to keep good image quality when enlarging or reducing the
asset within Flash?
Select the best response.
A. Bitmap.
B. Vector.
C. PNG.
D. SVG.
Answer: B

certification Adobe   9A0-092   9A0-092   certification 9A0-092

NO.9 You need to test your application for dial-up, DSL, cable and LAN connections.
Which option when running a SWF through Flash allows you to test this performance?
Select the best response.
A. Preview the SWF in a web browser.
B. While testing the SWF in Flash, select Simulate Download.
C. Run the Performance Analyzer.
D. Right-click on the SWF and select Performance Test.
Answer: B

Adobe   9A0-092 examen   certification 9A0-092   certification 9A0-092

NO.10 Given the following statement:
var catalog:XML = <products>
<product id="001" name="Widget" price="19.95" />
</products>;
Which is the correct way to access the name attribute?
Select the best response.
A. products.product.attributes.name;
B. products.product.@name;
C. catalog.product.attributes.name;
D. catalog.product.@name;
Answer: D

Adobe examen   certification 9A0-092   certification 9A0-092   9A0-092   9A0-092

Certification Riverbed de téléchargement gratuit pratique d'examen 299-01 201-01, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 299-01

Nom d'Examen: Riverbed (Riverbed Certified Solutions Professional - Network Performance Management)

Questions et réponses: 245 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 201-01

Nom d'Examen: Riverbed (Riverbed Certified Solutions Associate - Network Performance Management)

Questions et réponses: 195 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the minimum number of physical boxes involved in a Cascade Enterprise Profiler?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: C

Riverbed   certification 201-01   201-01   201-01

NO.2 Which of the following supports the largest number of Cascade analytics?
A. Express
B. Standard Profiler
C. Enterprise Profiler
D. B and C
E. A, B, and C
Answer: C

Riverbed examen   201-01   certification 201-01

NO.3 What are the default credentials to log into the Cascade Shark appliance Web Interface?
A. admin/admin
B. root/sharkappliance
C. root/root
D. root/riverbed
E. admin/cacetech
Answer: A

Riverbed   201-01   201-01   certification 201-01   201-01 examen

NO.4 In the Cascade Profiler GUI, what format can be used for a Dashboard Content Block? (Select 3)
A. Connection Graph
B. Detailed Flow List
C. Table
D. Pie Chart
E. Line Graph
Answer: C,D,E

certification Riverbed   201-01 examen   201-01 examen

NO.5 On Cascade Profiler, which of the following are configurable from the Configuration> User Interface
Preferences interface? (Select 4)
A. Default Host Group Type to use on the User Interface and Reports
B. Whether hosts will be displayed by IP address or DNS/DHCP hostname
C. User ¯s Timezone to use for the User Interface and Reports
D. Option to control whether bandwidth is reported in Bits or Bytes
E. Host group definitions for mapping IP subnets into Custom host groups
Answer: A,B,C,D

Riverbed   certification 201-01   201-01

NO.6 Configuring the Cascade appliance to use RADIUS for authentication/authorization involves which of
the following tasks (in no particular order): (Select 4)
A. User Name
B. Specify the IP address of the RADIUS server
C. Port number
D. Password
E. Authentication protocol
F. Shared secret of each RADIUS server
Answer: B,C,E,F

Riverbed examen   201-01 examen   201-01   201-01 examen

NO.7 Within Cascade Pilot, how are views used to analyze a trace file? (Select 2)
A. Drag the trace file on the View to apply the View.
B. Right-click the View item and select "Apply with Filter".
C. Drag a View on the trace file to apply the selected View.
D. Select the View and the trace file, and double-click the trace file.
Answer: B,C

Riverbed examen   201-01 examen   201-01

NO.8 How do you configure a new user for the Cascade Shark appliance?
A. From the User Management section of the Web Interface
B. From the Basic Settings page of the Web Interface
C. From the Users menu of Cascade Pilot
D. From the Advanced Settings page of the Web Interface
Answer: A

Riverbed   201-01   201-01 examen   201-01 examen   certification 201-01   201-01 examen

NO.9 Some common protocols, which may be observed on a network with visibility tools, include:
A. HTTP over TCP/80 and HTTPS over TCP/445
B. HTTP over TCP/80 and HTTPS over TCP/443
C. HTTP over TCP/443 and HTTPS over TCP/80
D. HTTP over TCP/445 and HTTPS over TCP/80
E. HTTP over TCP/88 and HTTP over TCP/444
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following are differences between the Cascade Sensor and the Cascade Shark appliances?
(Select 2)
A. Cascade Shark appliance can monitor 10GE interface traffic but Cascade Sensor cannot.
B. Cascade Sensor can provide flow data to Cascade Profiler but Cascade Shark appliance cannot.
C. Cascade Shark appliance has much higher write-to-disk rates than the Cascade Sensor and is the
appropriate appliance when packet capture is the primary requirement.
D. Cascade Sensor can recognize the application type by its DPI signature database but Cascade Shark
appliance cannot.
Answer: C,D

Riverbed   201-01   201-01 examen   201-01   certification 201-01

NO.11 What are some reports Cascade Profiler provides to benefit WAN management?
A. WAN Optimization Benefits reports, Breakdown of business versus non-business application reports,
QOS reports by interface and/or application.
B. WAN Optimization of all TCP protocols with more specific optimization of over 50 TCP Applications.
C. WAN reporting of TCP Protocols.
D. QOS shaping, User-based policies that will block not compliant traffic, WAN optimization reporting.
Answer: A

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NO.12 In a Cascade deployment with Sensor and Profiler, what information does the Application Performance
Policy report show? (Select 4)
A. Number of connections per second
B. Average Response time
C. TCP resets
D. CPU and memory utilization of server
E. TCP retransmission
F. Number of jumbo frames
Answer: A,B,C,E

Riverbed   201-01   201-01   certification 201-01

NO.13 How does the Cascade Profiler determine the optimization levels achieved for WAN Optimization
reports?
A. Compare the amount of traffic crossing a LAN interface to the corresponding traffic crossing an
optimized WAN interface.
B. Compare updates received via SNMP from Steelhead optimization devices with router devices.
C. The Cascade Profiler cannot determine optimization levels.
D. Through manual entry of levels achieved.
E. Compare updates received via flows from Steelhead optimization devices with router devices.
Answer: A

Riverbed examen   201-01   certification 201-01   201-01 examen   201-01 examen

NO.14 If one has a Service Health dashboard widget included on a dashboard, will all newly created Services
automatically appear on that dashboard widget?
A. Yes, always.
B. It depends on whether all of the segments initialize their baseline.
C. It depends on what criteria was used when defining the dashboard widget.
D. It depends on which user defined and committed the Service.
E. It depends on how many Services have already been configured.
Answer: C

Riverbed examen   201-01 examen   certification 201-01   201-01   201-01   201-01 examen

NO.15 To organize hosts into logical arrangements what is important to configure on Cascade Profiler.?
A. Host Baseline Profiles
B. Custom Port Definitions
C. Host Groupings
D. Mitigation Configuration
Answer: C

Riverbed   201-01 examen   201-01   201-01   certification 201-01   201-01

NO.16 To drill down and analyze a file within Cascade Pilot, you should. (Select 2)
A. Select a graphic object in a View chart, and drag a View on the object.
B. Select a graphic object in a View chart, and drag a View on the trace file.
C. Select the View, right-click, and apply it with the filter associated with a graphic object.
D. Right-click in the View chart, and select "Drill-down" to select the View.
Answer: A,D

Riverbed examen   201-01   201-01   201-01   201-01

NO.17 In the Cascade Profiler GUI, what do the QoS values mean?
A. They are based upon the 6-bit Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP).
B. They are based upon Host Group definitions, defined within the Cascade GUI.
C. They are based upon Application definitions, defined within the Cascade GUI.
D. They are based upon Port definitions, defined within the Cascade GUI.
Answer: A

Riverbed examen   201-01   201-01

NO.18 What are the ways Cascade Profiler can graphically depict response times in the GUI?
A. In Overall Traffic Graphs
B. In Connection Graphs
C. In Dashboard Line Graphs
D. In Overall Traffic Graphs and in Connection Graphs
Answer: D

Riverbed   certification 201-01   201-01   201-01

NO.19 Outgoing Mail Server (SMTP) Settings enable Cascade Profiler to: (Select 2)
A. receive mail from others.
B. send reports.
C. send disk failure notifications.
D. send alerts.
Answer: B,D

Riverbed   201-01   201-01

NO.20 What are the types of content blocks available to view Events
on the Cascade Profiler dashboard?
(Select 2)
A. Security Events
B. Performance and Availability Events
C. Current Events
D. Unacknowledged Events
E. Public Events
F. Private Events
G. Per User Events
H. Per IP Address Events
Answer: C,D

Riverbed examen   certification 201-01   certification 201-01   201-01 examen   201-01

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-870

Nom d'Examen: MYSQL (MySQL 5.0, 5.1 and 5.5 Certified Associate Exam)

Questions et réponses: 240 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 010-002

Nom d'Examen: MYSQL (Certified MySQL Associate (English))

Questions et réponses: 50 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 006-002

Nom d'Examen: MYSQL (Certified MySQL 5.0 DBA Part II)

Questions et réponses: 140 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 005-002

Nom d'Examen: MYSQL (Certified MySQL 5.0 DBA Part I)

Questions et réponses: 140 Q&As

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NO.1 You work as a Database Administrator for Pass4sure.com. The company uses MySQL as its database.
You have written two statements, which are as follows:
1. SELECT DISTINCT OBJECT_TYPE
FROM USER_OBJECTS;
2. SELECT OBJECT_TYPE
FROM ALL_OBJECTS;
Which of the following options explains the difference between the results of these two
statements? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. The first statement will display distinct object types that can be accessed by the user.
B. The second statement will display all object types that a user can access.
C. The first statement will display distinct object types owned by a user.
D. The second statement will display all object types owned by a user.
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 You work as a Database Administrator for Pass4sure.com. The company uses MySQL as its database
development platform. You have created a table named Employees in the database.
You want to display the names of the employees whose salary is more than $5000, but you do not want to
display any duplicate content. Therefore, you have written the following query:
SELECT emp_id, DISTINCT emp_name WHERE salary > 5000
FROM Employees;
Which of the following statements is true about the above query?
A. The statement will display only unique names whose salary is more than $5000.
B. The UNIQUE clause should be used in place of the DISTINCT clause.
C. The statement will give an error.
D. The statement will display those records whose salary is more than $5000.
Answer: C

MYSQL examen   certification 1Z0-870   certification 1Z0-870   1Z0-870 examen   certification 1Z0-870   1Z0-870

NO.3 Which of the following are the types of numeric literals that can be used in arithmetic expressions?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Numeric
B. Integer
C. Binary
D. Real
Answer: B,D

certification MYSQL   1Z0-870 examen   1Z0-870   certification 1Z0-870

NO.4 Which of the following will be true about a table column if you plan to create an index on that column?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. The column is often used in the WHERE clause of SQL statements.
B. The column contains very small number of NULL values.
C. The table is updated frequently.
D. The column should contain a wide range of values.
Answer: A,D

certification MYSQL   1Z0-870   1Z0-870   1Z0-870 examen

NO.5 Adam works as a Database Administrator for Pass4sure.com. The company uses MySQL as its
database. Adam has created a table named Employees in the database. He wants to retrieve the
information of those employees who have at least one person reporting to them. Which of the following
queries will Adam execute to accomplish the task?
A. SELECT employee_id, last_name, job_id, department_id FROM Employees WHERE
employee_id EXISTS (SELECT manager_id WHERE manager_id is NULL);
B. SELECT employee_id, last_name, job_id, department_id FROM Employees HAVING
employee_id IN (SELECT manager_id FROM Employees WHERE manager_id is NOT NULL);
C. SELECT employee_id, last_name, job_id, department_id FROM Employees outer WHERE EXISTS
(SELECT 'x' FROM Employees WHERE manager_id = outer.employee_id);
D. SELECT employee_id, last_name, job_id, department_id FROM Employees WHERE
employee_id IN (SELECT manager_id WHERE manager_id is NOT NULL);
Answer: C

certification MYSQL   certification 1Z0-870   1Z0-870 examen   1Z0-870

NO.6 You work as a Database Administrator for Pass4sure.com. The company uses MySQL as its database.
You have created a table named Employees in the database. You want to create a list of
employees working in the organization, but you do not want to display any duplicate row in the report.
Which of the following statements will help you to accomplish the task?
A. SELECT emp_id, emp_name FROM Employees ORDER BY emp_id;
B. SELECT emp_id, emp_name FROM Employees;
C. SELECT DISTINCT emp_id, emp_name FROM Employees;
D. SELECT emp_id, emp_name FROM Employees GROUP BY emp_id;
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following terms is described in the statement below?
"It is procedural code that is automatically executed in response to certain events on a particular table or
view in a database."
A. Data type
B. Table
C. Datetime data type
D. Database trigger
Answer: D

certification MYSQL   1Z0-870 examen   certification 1Z0-870   1Z0-870

NO.8 Adam works as a Database Administrator for Pass4sure.com. He creates a table named Students.
He wants to create a new table named Class with the help of the Students table. Which of the following
syntaxes will Adam use to accomplish the task?
A. CREATE TABLE Class
INSERT INTO SELECT * FROM Students;
B. CREATE TABLE Class
FROM SELECT * FROM Students;
C. CREATE TABLE Class
(SELECT * FROM Students);
D. CREATE TABLE Class
AS SELECT * FROM Students;
Answer: D

certification MYSQL   1Z0-870   certification 1Z0-870

NO.9 DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the correct constraint types to their corresponding specifications.
Answer:

NO.10 Fill in the blank with the appropriate word.
The ________data type defines a date that is combined with a time of day along with fractional seconds
that is based on a 24-hour clock.
A. datetime
Answer: A

MYSQL   1Z0-870   1Z0-870   1Z0-870   1Z0-870   1Z0-870 examen

NO.11 Fill in the blank with the appropriate word.
A ______specifies that the value of a column (or columns), upon which the index is based, must be
unique.
A. unique index
Answer: A

certification MYSQL   certification 1Z0-870   certification 1Z0-870

NO.12 Consider the exhibit given below:
Which of the following queries will return the name of the customer who placed the highest amount of
orders and the total order amount?
A. SELECT CUSTOMER, MAX(UNITPRICE*QUANTITY) AS "TOTAL"
FROM ORDERS
GROUP BY CUSTOMER
/
B. SELECT CUSTOMER, SUM(UNITPRICE*QUANTITY) AS "TOTAL"
FROM ORDERS
WHERE SUM(UNITPRICE*QUANTITY)
=
(SELECT MAX(SUM(UNITPRICE*QUANTITY)
)
FROM ORDERS
GROUP BY CUSTOMER)
GROUP BY CUSTOMER
/
C. SELECT CUSTOMER, SUM(UNITPRICE*QUANTITY) AS "TOTAL"
FROM ORDERS
GROUP BY CUSTOMER
HAVING SUM(UNITPRICE*QUANTITY)
=
(SELECT MAX(SUM(UNITPRICE*QUANTITY)
)
FROM ORDERS
GROUP BY CUSTOMER)
/
D. SELECT CUSTOMER, SUM(UNITPRICE*QUANTITY) AS "TOTAL"
FROM ORDERS
GROUP BY CUSTOMER
HAVING SUM(UNITPRICE*QUANTITY)
=
(SELECT SUM(UNITPRICE*QUANTITY)
FROM ORDERS
GROUP BY CUSTOMER)
/
Answer: C

certification MYSQL   1Z0-870 examen   certification 1Z0-870   certification 1Z0-870

NO.13 Which of the following statements is correct for equijoin used to join two tables named Employees and
Department?
A. SELECT Dept_Name, Emp_Name
FROM Departments d1, Employees e1
ORDER BY Dept_Name, Emp_Name;
B. SELECT D.Dept_Name, E.Emp_Name
FROM Departments d1, Employees e1
HAVING Dept_Name, Emp_Name;
C. SELECT E.Emp_Name, D.Dept_Name
FROM Departments d1, Employees e1
WHERE Dept_No = Dept_No
ORDER BY Dept_Name, Emp_Name;
D. SELECT Dept_Name, Emp_Name
FROM Departments d1, Employees e1
WHERE d1.Dept_No = e1.Dept_No
ORDER BY Dept_Name, Emp_Name;
Answer: D

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NO.14 You work as a Database Administrator for Pass4sure.com. The company uses MySQL as its database.
You have created two tables named Employees and Departments in the database. Now, you want to
display data from both tables. Which of the following actions will you perform to accomplish the task.?
A. Join
B. Table Merge operator
C. HAVING
D. GROUP BY
Answer: A

MYSQL examen   1Z0-870 examen   1Z0-870 examen   1Z0-870

NO.15 Which of the following properties of concurrency control refers to the requirement that other operations
cannot access or see the data in an intermediate state during the execution of a transaction?
A. Consistency
B. Durability
C. Atomicity
D. Isolation
Answer: D

MYSQL examen   1Z0-870 examen   1Z0-870

NO.16 You work as a Database Administrator for Pass4sure.com. The company uses MySQL as the database
platform. You have created a table named Students in the database. The structure of the table is as
follows:
Stu_ID NUMBER (3) PRIMARY KEY
Stu_Name VARCHAR2 (25) NOT NULL
Fee NUMBER (8, 2)
Class NUMBER (5);
You have executed the following statement for the table "Students":
SELECT e.Stu_Name, m.Fee
FROM Students e, Students m
WHERE e.Stu_ID = m.stu_ID;
Which of the following join types have you used in the above statement?
A. Cross join
B. Equijoin
C. Self join
D. Outer join
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which of the following are true about UPDATE statements?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. You can use the WHERE clause to have your update affects a specific set of rows.
B. You use the SET clause to update multiple columns of a table separated by commas.
C. You can use co-related sub query in UPDATE statements to update data from other tables.
D. If you don't use the WHERE clause then the UPDATE will not update any rows in the table.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.18 Fill in the blank with the appropriate term.
A______ provides a concise and flexible means for matching strings of text,
such as particular characters, words, or patterns of characters.
A. regular expression
Answer: A

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NO.19 You work as a Database Administrator for Pass4sure.com. The company uses the MySQL database.
You have created a new table named Employees in the database and performed update operation but
you got an error because of the last transaction. Now, you want to terminate the last transaction. Which of
the following commands can you use to accomplish the task?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. ROLLBACK
B. REMOVE
C. DELETE
D. COMMIT
Answer: A,D

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NO.20 You work as a Database Administrator for Pass4sure.com. The company uses MySQL as its database.
You have created a new table named Employees, which keeps all the information of the
employees. You want to add a new row to the Employees table. Which of the following statements will you
use to accomplish the task?
A. INSERT (column1, column2, ...columnN) INTO <table_name> VALUES(value1, value2, ...v alueN);
B. INSERT INTO <table_name>(column1, column2, ...columnN) VALUES(value1 ,value2,
...va lueN);
C. INSERT <table_name>(column1, column2, ...columnN), VALUES(value1, value2, ...valueN );
D. INSERT INTO <table_name>(column1, column2,... columnN), VALUES(value1, value2, ...v alueN);
Answer: B

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