SOA Certified Professional C90-02A, de formation et d'essai

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Code d'Examen: C90-02A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (Cloud Technology Concepts)
Questions et réponses: 87 Q&As

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NO.1 A virtual server is a form of ____________________ software that emulates a(n)
____________________ computer.
Select the correct answer.
A.virtual monitoring, on-premise
B.virtual monitoring, cloud-based
C.virtualization, physical
D.virtualization, logical
Answer: C

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NO.2 Assuming a cloud service is configured to support on-demand usage, which of the following cloud
computing mechanisms would the cloud provider need to use in order to keep track of what to charge
cloud consumers?
Select the correct answer.
A.on-demand usage listener
B.multi-device broker
C.resource billing replicator
D.None of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.3 A ___________________ is a mechanism used to temporarily persist certain types of data as an
alternative to caching the data in memory.
Select the correct answer.
A.resource replicator
B.state management database
C.failover system
D.multi-device broker
Answer: B

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NO.4 A hypervisor can independently manage and monitor the virtualization of multiple virtual servers, and is
therefore associated with the __________________ mechanism.
Select the correct answer.
A.pay-for-use monitor
B.automated scaling listener
C.multi-device broker
D.None of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following IT resources are examples of multi-device brokers?
Select the correct answer.
A.An XML gateway that performs runtime transformation of messaging protocols.
B.A cloud storage gateway that performs runtime transformation of cloud storage device protocols.
C.A middleware product that performs runtime transformation of XML schemas.
D.All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.6 A failover system can increase ___________________and ___________________ by using
_______________ technology.?
Select the correct answer.
A.resources, usage thresholds, legacy
B.reliability, availability, clustering
C.flexibility, integrity, real-time
D.confidentiality, responsiveness, cloud
Answer: B

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NO.7 A cloud service can be hosted by a physical server or a virtual server. When using the failover system
mechanism, the same cloud service cannot be hosted by more than one physical server.
Select the correct answer.
A.True
B.False
Answer: B

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NO.8 A ___________________ is an IT resource that contains mapping logic capable of performing runtime
transformation to enable communication between a cloud service and different types of cloud service
consumers.
Select the correct answer.
A.failover system
B.pay-for-use monitor
C.ready-made environment
D.multi-device broker
Answer: D

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NO.9 __________________ represents the ability of a cloud platform to keep track of the usage of its IT
resources by cloud consumers, and is therefore directly related to the __________________ mechanism.
Select the correct answer.
A.Replicated usage, cloud monitor
B.Measured usage, pay-for-use monitor
C.Agent usage, on-premise monitor
D.None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following is an IT resource that can be provided in a ready-made environment?
Select the correct answer.
A.database
B.development tool
C.virtual server
D.All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.11 The ____________________ is a service agent that can measure the usage of a cloud-based IT
resource by a cloud consumer for billing purposes.
Select the correct answer.
A.automated scaling listener
B.pay-for-use monitor
C.multi-device broker
D.resource replicator
Answer: B

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NO.12 A ____________________ is a pre-defined cloud-based platform comprised of a set of already installed
IT resources that can be used and customized by a cloud consumer.
Select the correct answer.
A.failover system
B.pay-for-use monitor
C.ready-made environment
D.multi-device broker
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following cloud computing mechanisms can exist as a service agent that monitors and
keeps track of communication between cloud service consumers and cloud services for load balancing
purposes?
Select the correct answer.
A.multi-device broker
B.pay-for-use monitor
C.resource replicator
D.automated scaling listener
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following statements are true about the failover system mechanism?
SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A.A failover system can only be used for legacy batch programs.
B.A failover system cannot span over more than one geographical region.
C.A failover system can be used to make redundant implementations of the same cloud service.
D.A failover system can be used to avoid introducing cloud services as single points of failure.
Answer: CD

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NO.15 Which of the following cloud computing mechanisms helps enable on-demand usage by allowing cloud
services to be configured to support higher usage thresholds automatically, and within pre-defined
parameters?
Select the correct answer.
A.pay-for-use monitor
B.automated scaling listener
C.multi-device broker
D.resource replication
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: PW0-270
Nom d'Examen: CWAP (Certified Wireless Analysis Professional)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statement is true regarding the Association Identifier (AID) used in IEEE 802.11 WLANs?
A. The AID has a maximum value of 2048, and is used to uniquely identify a wireless client station
associated with an access point.
B. The AID has a maximum value of 2007, and resides in the duration/ID field of a PS-Poll frame.
C. The client station is assigned an AID value in the 802.11 authentication response frame.
D. The AID field is present only in Beacons frames.
E. The AID is used by the access point in EDCA mode to reduce duplicate transmissions when sending
multicasts.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the purpose of a PHY preamble.?
A. It provides the receiver(s) with an opportunity for RF channel synchronization prior to the start of the
PLCP header.
B. It communicates important information about the PSDU's length, rate, and upper layer protocol-related
parameters.
C. It provides a cyclic redundancy check (CRC) for the receiving station to validate that the PLCP header
was received correctly.
D. It indicates to the PHY the modulation that shall be used for transmission (and reception) of the PSDU.
Answer: A

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NO.3 In which 802.11 frames is the SSID present, provided the SSID is not removed through proprietary
software configuration by an administrator? (Choose 3)
A. Association Request
B. Reassociation Request
C. Probe Response
D. Disassociation
E. Authentication
F. Association Response
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.4 Using the exhibit as a reference, answer the following.
STA1 sent a data frame to Mesh AP2 destined for a local file server on the same subnet with MAC
address 00:11:22:33:44:55. Mesh AP2's mesh forwarding algorithm determined that the frame should be
forwarded through Mesh AP1.
In the frame sent from Mesh AP2 to Mesh AP1, what is true of the contents of the MAC header? (Choose
3)
A. SA = Mesh AP2's MAC Address
B. RA = Mesh AP1's MAC Address
C. TA = STA1's MAC Address
D. DA = 00:11:22:33:44:55
E. To DS = 0
F. From DS = 1
Answer: B,D,F

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NO.5 When a 5 GHz HT station in a 40 MHz BSS desires to protect a 40 MHz transmission from an OFDM
station using an RTS/CTS or CTS-to-Self exchange, what frame format is used for the RTS and/or CTS
frames?
A. HT-mixed format
B. HT-greenfield format
C. Dual-CTS
D. Non-HT Duplicate
E. Phased Coexistence PPDU
Answer: D

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NO.6 In the frame decode shown, there are two sets of supported data rates. 1, 2, 5.5, and 11 Mbps are all
shown as "basic" data rates, and 6, 9, 12, 18, 24, 36, 48, and 54 Mbps are shown simply as supported
data rates.
What is true of "basic" data rates in this context?
A. The AP requires all client stations to support Basic rates in order to associate to its BSS.
B. The highest data rate set to Basic is automatically used to send broadcast traffic such as Beacon
frames.
C. Basic rates are optional data rates for the BSS, often used for assuring connectivity for legacy stations.
D. Basic rates are only used for multicast traffic, and do not affect unicast traffic.
E. Basic rates are defined in an AP's service set to specify mandatory data rates for all retry frames.
Answer: A

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NO.7 What HT PPDU format is shown in the exhibit?
A. HT-mixed format
B. HT-greenfield format
C. Non-HT format
D. Non-HT duplicate format
E. Dual Training Field format
F. ERP-OFDM format
Answer: A

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NO.8 According to 802.11-2007, in what frame type(s) might you find the PMK Count and PMKID List fields?
A. All frames that include the RSN IE
B. Only (Re)Association Request frames
C. Beacon and Probe Response frames
D. EAPoL 4-Way Handshake frames
E. Authentication and Association Request and Response frames
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which statements are true regarding Beacons from an AP in an HT infrastructure BSS that is configured
with multiple WLAN profiles? (Choose 3)
A. Beacons can be disabled for security purposes.
B. The BSSID and Source Address are always the same.
C. The Destination Address is always FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF.
D. The Receiver address and the BSSID are always the same.
E. When the SSID is "hidden," the ESS subfield of the Capability Information field distinguishes one BSS
from another.
F. All Beacons generated by APs contain a TIM information element.
G. The Beacon interval must be the same for all WLANs (SSIDs) supported by a single AP
Answer: B,C,F

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NO.10 What IEEE 802.11 technology is illustrated by the exhibit?
A. Fragmentation
B. TCP Fragment Bursting
C. A-MSDU
D. A-MPDU E. U-APSD
F. Jumbo frames
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: L50-501
Nom d'Examen: LSI (LSI SVM5 Implementation Engineer)
Questions et réponses: 119 Q&As

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NO.1 You have a customer that feels that their application can take advantage of striping their data. Which
two conditions will improve performance? (Choose two.)
A. Striping across two different storage systems.
B. Servers are running a transactional application where I/Os per second are required.
C. Disks that are available for inclusion in the stripe set are not of equal size.
D. Disks that are available for inclusion in the stripe set are of equal size.
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 What should you do before starting the SVM server software upgrade process?
A. Reboot the SVM server.
B. Disconnect the SVM Fibre Channel cables.
C. Shut down the SVM Web server.
D. Uninstall the SVM server agent.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which statement about the SVM server software upgrade is true?
A. The SVM server must be rebooted as part of the software upgrade process.
B. The SVM server must only be rebooted on major versions, e.g 5.1 to 5.2.
C. The SVM server can stay online during the software upgrade.
D. The DPMs must be taken offline during the SVM server reboot.
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer is running a cluster with cluster nodes and storage on either site and requires synchronous
mirroring across the two sites. You proposed a stretched SVM domain and now you need to configure the
zoning. Which two zoning rules apply to this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Each DPM must see both storage systems.
B. Each DPM must only see the local storage system.
C. Each cluster node must see both SVM servers.
D. The SVM servers must see each other.
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 During the SVM Management software installation, which two adapters would you select to be
controlled by the SVM? (Choose two.)
A. Emulex Fibre Channel adapter
B. Qlogic Fibre Channel adapter
C. Microsoft iSCSI initiator
D. Smart Array controller
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 What are two requirements to set up a stretched SVM domain across two datacenters on the same
campus? (Choose two.)
A. Both SVM servers must be located on the same site.
B. The sites must be interconnected through two fabrics/ISLs.
C. Each site must have a minimum of one copy of the setup volume.
D. A dedicated IP link must be provided to interconnect the SVM servers.
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 Which statement describes what should be performed after a DPM image upgrade?
A. The DPM rank must be modified.
B. Set the DPM maximum frame size.
C. The DPM image upgrade does not change the DPM configuration parameters.
D. Configure the DPM ports type and speed.
Answer: C

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NO.8 At the end of the SVM installation, which three actions should you perform to ensure that the installation
is correct.? (Choose three.)
A. Test failover between two SVMs to make sure that you can successfully failover between SVMs.
B. Make sure that the SVM recognizes the DPM and that the DPM recognizes all of the devices that are
connected to the DPM ports.
C. Make sure that the SVM and DPM recognize the LUNs available on the storage array.
D. Make sure that the DPMs can communicate with each other.
E. Make sure that the LSI Failover Driver is installed on the SVM server.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.9 Which parameter must be the same for SVM servers that manage the same SVM domain?
A. serial number
B. SVM domain name
C. computer name
D. WWNN
Answer: B

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NO.10 Where is the SVM metadata stored?
A. On a mirror, between the two SVM internal hard drives.
B. On a mirror, between the managed storage array LUNs and the SVM internal hard drive.
C. On a mirror, between managed storage array LUNs.
D. On a mirror, between the two SVM internal hard drive partitions.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Your current SAN environment includes a storage system with LUNs exposed directly to Windows hosts.
You have been asked to integrate this storage system into the new SVM domain. Which statement is
correct?
A. The existing data can be moved to an SVM virtual volume while the application is still writing to the
source LUN.
B. The physical LUN containing the data must be unmounted from the host while the data is been moved
to an SVM virtual volume.
C. The physical LUN containing the data must be mounted to the host while the data is been moved to an
SVM virtual volume.
D. The physical LUN containing the data must be mounted to the SVM servers while the data is been
moved to an SVM virtual volume.
Answer: B

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NO.12 What is the difference between the active SVM server and the passive SVM server?
A. The passive SVM server takes control when the active SVM server is too busy.
B. The passive SVM server is a standby server only and does not perform any management tasks.
C. The passive SVM server can only modify objects but cannot create objects.
D. The passive SVM server can only manage user accounts.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Two SVM servers in SVM Domain A are connected over Fibre Channel with two SVM servers in SVM
Domain B. The SVM servers' HBA at each domain can see the SVM servers' HBA at the other SVM
domain. What should you do to interconnect the SVM domains?
A. An SVM automatically negotiates the connection with the SVMs in other domains over Fibre Channel.
B. SVM domains should not be interconnected.
C. To interconnect two SVM domains, select Tools > Options > General > Configuration > Connect SVM
Domain.
D. To interconnect two SVM domains, select Tools > Options > General > Configuration > Connect FC
Domain.
Answer: A

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NO.14 A customer wants to create a SVM stripe. Which SVM stripe value should be set?
A. 64 KB
B. 256 KB
C. 512 KB
D. 1 MB
Answer: D

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NO.15 When adding storage to an existing SVM pool, what must be considered?
A. Growing the LUN will provide better utilization of storage.
B. Always pay attention to the performance characteristics of the storage.
C. Always select storage with different storage characteristics.
D. Adding storage to an existing pool will reduce performance.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: GCFW
Nom d'Examen: GIAC (GIAC Certified Firewall Analyst)
Questions et réponses: 391 Q&As

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NO.1 Adam works as a Security Administrator for Umbrella Inc. A project has been assigned to him to
secure access to the network of the company from all possible entry points. He segmented the network
into several subnets and installed firewalls all over the network. He has placed very stringent rules on all
the firewalls, blocking everything in and out except the ports that must be used. He does need to have
port 80 open since his company hosts a website that must be accessed from the Internet. Adam is still
worried about the programs like Hping2 that can get into a network through covert channels.
Which of the following is the most effective way to protect the network of the company from an attacker
using Hping2 to scan his internal network?
A. Block ICMP type 13 messages
B. Block ICMP type 3 messages
C. Block all outgoing traffic on port 21
D. Block all outgoing traffic on port 53
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following limits the number of packets seen by tcpdump?
A. BPF-based filter
B. Recipient filtering
C. Sender filtering
D. IFilters
Answer: A

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NO.3 Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) spoofing, also known as ARP poisoning or ARP Poison Routing
(APR), is a technique used to attack an Ethernet wired or wireless network. ARP spoofing may allow an
attacker to sniff data frames on a local area network (LAN), modify the traffic, or stop the traffic altogether.
The principle of ARP spoofing is to send fake ARP messages to an Ethernet LAN.
What steps can be used as a countermeasure of ARP spoofing?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Using ARP Guard utility
B. Using smash guard utility
C. Using static ARP entries on servers, workstation and routers
D. Using ARP watch utility
E. Using IDS Sensors to check continually for large amount of ARP traffic on local subnets
Answer: A,C,D,E

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NO.4 Which of the following is an attack with IP fragments that cannot be reassembled?
A. Dictionary attack
B. Smurf attack
C. Teardrop attack
D. Password guessing attack
Answer: C

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NO.5 WinDump, tcpdump, and Wireshark specify which fields of information libpcap should record.
Which of the following filters do they use in order to accomplish the task?
A. Berkeley Packet Filter
B. IM filter
C. Web filter
D. FIR filter
Answer: A

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NO.6 John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned a project for testing the security of
www.we-are-secure.com. He wants to corrupt an IDS signature database so that performing attacks on
the server is made easy and he can observe the flaws in the We-are-secure server. To perform his task,
he first of all sends a virus that continuously changes its signature to avoid detection from IDS. Since the
new signature of the virus does not match the old signature, which is entered in the IDS signature
database, IDS becomes unable to point out the malicious virus. Which of the following IDS evasion
attacks is John performing?
A. Session splicing attack
B. Evasion attack
C. Polymorphic shell code attack
D. Insertion attack
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following can be monitored by using the host intrusion detection system (HIDS)?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Computer performance
B. File system integrity
C. Storage space on computers
D. System files
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 You work as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a TCP/IP network. You have
been assigned a task to configure security mechanisms for the network of the company. You have
decided to configure a packet filtering firewall. Which of the following may be the reasons that made you
choose a packet filtering firewall as a security mechanism?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It makes security transparent to end-users which provide easy use of the client application s.
B. It prevents application-layer attacks.
C. It is easy to install packet filtering firewalls in comparison to the other network security sol utions.
D. It easily matches most of the fields in Layer 3 packets and Layer 4 segment headers, and thus,
provides a lot of flexibility in implementing security policies.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.9 You work as a Network Architect for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has a corporate LAN network. You
will have to perform the following tasks:
l Limit events that occur from security threats such as viruses, worms, and spyware.
l Restrict access to the network based on identity or security posture.
Which of the following services will you deploy in the network to accomplish the tasks?
A. NetFlow
B. Protocol-Independent Multicast
C. Network Admission Control
D. Firewall Service Module
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following components are usually found in an Intrusion detection system (IDS).?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Firewall
B. Console
C. Gateway
D. Modem
E. Sensor
Answer: B,E

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NO.11 Which of the following number ranges is used for the IP Standard ACL?
A. 100-199
B. 1000-1099
C. 600-699
D. 1-99
Answer: D

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NO.12 A packet filtering firewall inspects each packet passing through the network and accepts or rejects it
based on user-defined rules. Based on which of the following information are these rules set to filter the
packets?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Layer 4 protocol information
B. Actual data in the packet
C. Interface of sent or received traffic
D. Source and destination Layer 3 address
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.13 Choose the best explanation for the resulting error when entering the command below.
A. The command is attempting to create a standard access list with extended access list param eters.
B. The ACL commands should be entered from the (config-router) configuration mode.
C. The wildcard mask is not provided for the source and destination addresses.
D. The port number given does not correspond with the proper transport protocol.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following statements about the traceroute utility are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It generates a buffer overflow exploit by transforming an attack shell code so that the new attack shell
code cannot be recognized by any Intrusion Detection Systems.
B. It uses ICMP echo packets to display the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of
each gateway along the route to the remote host.
C. It records the time taken for a round trip for each packet at each router.
D. It is an online tool that performs polymorphic shell code attacks.
Answer: B,C

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NO.15 Which of the following proxy servers is placed anonymously between the client and remote server and
handles all of the traffic from the client?
A. Web proxy server
B. Open proxy server
C. Forced proxy server
D. Caching proxy server
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which of the following devices is used to identify out-of-date software versions, applicable patches,
system upgrades, etc?
A. Retinal scanner
B. Fingerprint reader
C. Smart card reader
D. Vulnerability scanner
Answer: D

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NO.17 Peter works as a Technical Representative in a CSIRT for SecureEnet Inc. His team is called to
investigate the computer of an employee, who is suspected for classified data theft. Suspect's computer
runs on Windows operating system. Peter wants to collect data and evidences for further analysis. He
knows that in Windows operating system, the data is searched in pre-defined steps for proper and
efficient analysis. Which of the following is the correct order for searching data on a Windows based
system?
A. Volatile data, file slack, internet traces, registry, memory dumps, system state backup, file system
B. Volatile data, file slack, registry, memory dumps, file system, system state backup, interne t traces
C. Volatile data, file slack, file system, registry, memory dumps, system state backup, interne t traces
D. Volatile data, file slack, registry, system state backup, internet traces, file system, memory dumps
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of the following statements are true about an IDP rule base notification?
A. It can be defined as reusable logical entities that the user can apply to the rules.
B. When an action is performed, a notification defines how to log information.
C. It is used to specify the type of network traffic that has to be monitored for attacks.
D. It directs an IDP to drop or close the connection.
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which of the following is the default port for POP3?
A. 25
B. 21
C. 80
D. 110
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which of the following are the countermeasures against a man-in-the-middle attack?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Using Secret keys for authentication.
B. Using public key infrastructure authentication.
C. Using Off-channel verification.
D. Using basic authentication.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.21 Which of the following ICMPv6 neighbor discovery messages is sent by hosts to request an immediate
router advertisement, instead of waiting for the next scheduled advertisement?
A. Router Advertisement
B. Neighbor Advertisement
C. Router Solicitation
D. Neighbor Solicitation
Answer: C

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NO.22 You work as a Security Manger for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows-based network.
You want to scroll real-time network traffic to a command console in a readable format. Which of the
following command line utilities will you use to accomplish the task?
A. WinPcap
B. WinDump
C. iptables
D. libpcap
Answer: B

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NO.23 Which of the following IDs is used to reassemble the fragments of a datagram at the destination point?
A. IP identification number
B. SSID
C. MAK ID
D. IP address
Answer: A

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NO.24 Which of the following intrusion detection systems (IDS) monitors network traffic and compares it
against an established baseline?
A. Network-based
B. File-based
C. Signature-based
D. Anomaly-based
Answer: D

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NO.25 Which of the following are the reasons that network administrators use Access Control Lists?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Encrypting data to be routed
B. Removing weak user password
C. Controlling VTY access into a router
D. Filtering traffic as it passes through a router
Answer: C,D

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NO.26 Which of the following commands configures a router to encrypt all passwords entered after the
command has been executed, as well as all passwords already on the running configuration?
A. no service password-encryption
B. enable password-encryption
C. no enable password-encryption
D. service password-encryption
Answer: D

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NO.27 A scenario involves a pool of users with private IP addresses who need to access the Internet;
however, the company has a limited number of IP addresses and needs to ensure users occupy only one
public IP address.
Which technology is used to allow a pool of users to share one global IP address for Internet access?
A. Port Address Translation
B. Per-user Address Translation
C. Pool Address Translation
D. Private Address Translation
Answer: A

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NO.28 Which of the following protocols does IPsec use to perform various security functions in the network?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Skinny Client Control Protocol
B. Authentication Header
C. Encapsulating Security Payload
D. Internet Key Exchange
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.29 Which of the following types of Intrusion Detection Systems consists of an agent on a host that identifies
intrusions by analyzing system calls, application logs, file-system modifications (binaries, password files,
capability/acl databases) and other host activities and state?
A. HIDS
B. NIDS
C. APIDS
D. PIDS
Answer: A

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NO.30 Which of the following algorithms is used as a default algorithm for ESP extension header in IPv6?
A. Electronic Codebook (ECB) Mode
B. Cipher Block Chaining (CBC) Mode
C. Propagating Cipher Block Chaining (PCBC) Mode
D. Cipher Feedback (CFB) Mode
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: GSSP-NET-CSHARP
Nom d'Examen: GIAC (GIAC Secure Software Programmer - C#.NET)
Questions et réponses: 550 Q&As

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NO.1 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET as its application
development platform. You create a class library using the .NET Framework. The library will be used to
open the NSCs of computers. Later, you will set up the class library to the GAC and provide it Full Trust
permission. You write down the following code segments for the socket connections:
SocketPermission permission = new SocketPermission(PermissionState.Unrestricted);
permission.Assert();
A number of the applications that use the class library may not have the necessary permissions to open
the network socket connections. Therefore, you are required to withdraw the assertion. Which of the
following code segments will you use to accomplish the task?
A. permission.PermitOnly();
B. CodeAccessPermission.RevertDeny();
C. permission.Deny();
D. CodeAccessPermission.RevertAssert();
E. permission.Demand();
Answer: D

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NO.2 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You are creating an ASP.NET Web application using .NET Framework
3.5. The application will be used to share any type of photos on Internet. All the photos should be
accessible in various sizes and formats. You need to add a download feature that can be easily
maintained. You also need to make sure that only a single version of all photos is stored on a SQL server
database. What will you do?
A. Create an HttpModule class to determine the request for the photo download. Process the photo
according to the given format and size, and after that return the processed photo in the response.
B. Create a user control that converts the photo to the required format and size.
C. Create an HttpHandler class to determine the request for the photo download. Process the photo
according to the given format and size, and after that return the processed photo in the response.
D. Create an ActiveX control that converts the photo to the required format and size.
Answer: C

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NO.3 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using .NET Framework 3.5.
You create a Web form in the application that permits users to provide personal information. You add a
DropDownList control to the Web form to retrieve the residential status of users. The default item that the
DropDownList control displays is the "Select Country" option. You have to ensure that users select a
country other than the default option. Which of the following validation controls should you use to
accomplish this task?
A. RangeValidator
B. RequiredFieldValidator
C. CustomValidator
D. RegularExpressionValidator
Answer: B

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NO.4 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company has several branches worldwide. The
company uses Visual Studio .NET 2005 as its application development platform. You are creating an
application using .NET Framework 2.0. The application will be used by all the branches of the company.
You are using the CompareInfo class for culture-sensitive string comparisons. You write the following
code in the application:
String s1 = "C rtify";
String s2 = "c rtify";
String s3 = "c rtify";
You need to compare the s1 string with the s2 string and ensure that the string comparison must ignore
case. Which of the following code segments will you use to accomplish the task?
A. CompareInfo cmp = CultureInfo.InvariantCulture.CompareInfo; Console.WriteLine(cmp.Compare(s1,
s2, CompareOptions.IgnoreCase));
B. CompareInfo cmp = CultureInfo.InvariantCulture.CompareInfo; Console.WriteLine(cmp.Compare(s1,
s2, CompareOptions.None));
C. CompareInfo cmp = CultureInfo.InvariantCulture.CompareInfo; Console.WriteLine(cmp.Compare(s1,
s2, CompareOptions.Ordinal));
D. CompareInfo cmp = CultureInfo.InvariantCulture.CompareInfo; Console.WriteLine(cmp.Compare(s1,
s2, CompareOptions.OrdinalIgnoreCase));
Answer: A

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NO.5 Session variables can be any valid __________.
A. .NET Framework type
B. Integer type
C. SessionStateItemCollection object
D. Object type
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following techniques is used to transmit passwords during authentication?
A. Asymmetric encryption
B. Hashing
C. Salted Hash
D. Symmetric encryption
Answer: C

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NO.7 You work as an Application Developer for ABC Inc. You are assigned with developing a Web site that
will handle information related to monthly sales of the company. You wish to secure the Web site so that
only employees of the Accounts department can view the Web pages. You need to create roles for the
employees of this department. The user account information will be stored in a SQL Server database
named Database. You decide to do all this by using the Web Site Administration Tool. Which of the
following types of security will you use to accomplish the task?
A. Forms-based authentication
B. Integrated Microsoft Windows authentication
C. Basic authentication
D. Digest authentication
Answer: A

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NO.8 In .NET Framework 3.5, you can create and access values that persist from one application session to
another. What are these values called?
A. Objects
B. Settings
C. Properties
D. Attributes
Answer: B

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NO.9 You can use LINQ in an ASP.NET application through the LinqDataSource control, the __________
control, or by creating LINQ queries.
A. ADO.NET DataSet
B. ObjectDataSource
C. SqlDataSource
D. XmlDataSource
Answer: B

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NO.10 Allen works as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET as its
application development platform. He creates an application using .NET Framework. He wants to encrypt
all his e-mails that he sends to anyone. Which of the following will he use to accomplish the task?
A. PPP
B. FTP
C. PPTP
D. PGP
Answer: D

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NO.11 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You have recently finished development of an ASP.NET Web
application using the .NET Framework 3.5. You host the application on a Web farm that consists of three
Web servers. You should configure the ASP.NET application for session state to meet the following
requirements:
l Session state data should not be lost if a server fails.
l Session state must be maintained across browser requests by the same user.
You are required to configure the Web.config file to meet these requirements. Which of the following
configurations will you use?
A. <sessionState mode="StateServer"/>
B. <sessionState mode="InProc"/>
C. <sessionState mode="Custom"/>
D. <sessionState mode="SQLServer"/>
Answer: D

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NO.12 Andrew works as a Software Developer for Mansoft Inc. The company's network has a Web server
that hosts the company's Web site. Andrew wants to enhance the security of the Web site by
implementing Secure Sockets Layer (SSL). Which of the following types of encryption does SSL use?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Symmetric
B. Secret
C. IPSec
D. Asymmetric
Answer: A,D

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NO.13 You work as a Software Developer for Mansoft Inc. You create an application and use it to create code
access security policies. Which of the following tools will you use to examine and modify code access
security policies from a batch file?
A. Tlbimp.exe
B. GacUtil.exe
C. Sn.exe
D. Caspol.exe
E. StoreAdm.exe
Answer: D

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NO.14 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company has several branches worldwide. The
company uses Visual Studio.NET 2005 as its application development platform. You have recently
finished the development of an application using .NET Framework 2.0. The application can be used only
for cryptography. Therefore, you have implemented the application on a computer. What will you call the
computer that implemented cryptography?
A. Cryptographic toolkit
B. Cryptosystem
C. Cryptographer
D. Cryptanalyst
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following session and instancing modes will you set if you require a sessionfull binding
and want to create a new instance object for each client request?
A. Set SessionMode to Allowed and IntsanceMode to PerSession.
B. Set SessionMode to Required and IntsanceMode to Single.
C. Set SessionMode to Required and IntsanceMode to PerCall.
D. Set SessionMode to Allowed and IntsanceMode to PerCall.
Answer: C

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NO.16 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using the .NET Framework
3.5. The application contains two HTML pages named Error.htm and
PageNotFound.htm. You want to make sure that the following requirements are met:
l When any user requests a page that does not exist, the PageNotFound.htm page is
displayed.
l When any other error occurs, the Error.htm page is displayed. Which of the following code segments will
you add to the Web.config file to accomplish this task?
A. <customErrors mode="On" defaultRedirect="Error.htm">
<error statusCode="404" redirect="PageNotFound.htm"/>
</customErrors>
B. <customErrors mode="Off">
<error statusCode="400" redirect="Error.htm"/>
<error statusCode="404" redirect="PageNotFound.htm"/>
</customErrors>
C. <customErrors mode="On">
<error statusCode="400" redirect="Error.htm"/>
<error statusCode="404" redirect="PageNotFound.htm"/> </customErrors>
D. <customErrors mode="Off" defaultRedirect="Error.htm"> <error statusCode="404"
redirect="PageNotFound.htm"/> </customErrors>
Answer: A

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NO.17 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2005 as its
application development platform. You have recently finished development of a Windows application
using .NET Framework. Users report that the application is not running properly. When the users try to
complete a particular action, the following error message comes out:
Unable to find assembly 'myservices, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral,
PublicKeyToken=29b5ad26c9de9b95'.
You notice that the error occurs as soon as the application tries to call functionality in a serviced
component that was registered by using the following command:
regsvcs.exe myservices.dll
You must make sure that the application can call the functionality in the serviced component with no
exceptions being thrown. What will you do to accomplish this task?
A. Run the command line tool: regasm.exe myservices.dll.
B. Copy the serviced component assembly into the C:\Program Files\ComPlus Applications fold er.
C. Run the command line tool: gacutil.exe /i myservices.dll.
D. Copy the serviced component assembly into the C:\WINDOWS\system32\Com folder.
Answer: C

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NO.18 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using the .NET
Framework 3.5. You want to use a HTTP module called on each and every request made by the
application. It is called as part of the ASP.NET request pipeline. It has right to access life-cycle events
throughout the request. You also want to ensure that the HTTP module allows a user to inspect incoming
and outgoing requests and take appropriate action based on the request. What will be the correct order to
create the HTTP module?
A.
Answer: A

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NO.19 You work as a Software Developer for ManSoft Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2005 as its
application development platform. You have recently created an application that includes the code shown
below.
string str1 = "ABC";
string str2 = "u";
str2 += "Certify";
Console.WriteLine(str1 == str2);
Console.WriteLine((Object) str1 == (Object) str2);
Console.WriteLine(str1.Equals(str2));
What will be the output of the above code?
A. False False False
B. False True False
C. True True True
D. True False True
Answer: D

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NO.20 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2005 as its
application development platform. You create an application for the company. You need to validate the
phone number passed to a class as a parameter in the application. Which of the following is the most
effective way to verify that the format of the data matches a phone number.?
A. Regular expressions
B. Nested If statements
C. Use the String.Length property
D. A try/catch block
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: adwords-reporting
Nom d'Examen: Google (Google Reporting and Analysis Exam Practice Test)
Questions et réponses: 211 Q&As

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NO.1 You have added "coffee cups" as a keyword to your Google AdWords campaign. Which of the
following Google searches would cause your ad to display?
A. Only searches for "coffee cups" as it's using the exact match options.
B. Only search for "coffee cups" (lower cased) as it's using the case sensitive options.
C. Any queries that search for "coffee cups" in quotation marks.
D. Any queries that include "coffee cups" in the search, such as yellow coffee cups or coffee cups sale.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Google determines a quality score to evaluate keyword relevance. The higher the quality score, the
better the ad will perform for your site. There are several factors that go into determining your quality
score, which include your clickthrough rate, the relevance of your ad text, keyword, and what is the other
factor?
A. Domain name
B. History of Google AdWords
C. Negative keywords
D. Landing page
Answer: D

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NO.3 What reporting portion of Google Analytics would you examine if you're interested in seeing your most
popular pages in your website?
A. E-commerce
B. Content
C. Web page views
D. Goals
Answer: B

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NO.4 Holly is the webmaster for her company's website and she would like to install and configure Google
Analytics. She has configured her website for the Google Analytics code but is uncertain on what pages
she should install the tracking code. Where does Holly need to install the Google Analytics code ga.js in
her website?
A. On her home page
B. On her index page
C. On her Google Analytics destination URL
D. On every page of her website
Answer: D

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NO.5 Ben is reviewing the Google Analytics report for his website. He's examining the e-commerce reports
to determine how well his sales have been in proportion to the traffic he's received. Ben would like to see
the ratio of actual sales from his website in relation to the amount of traffic he's received. Within the
e-commerce section of Google Analytics what report should Ben utilize?
A. Total revenue
B. Visits to Purchase
C. Conversion rate
D. Average order value
Answer: C

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NO.6 You are a Google AdWords consultant for a client. You've created a Google AdWords campaign for
your client's website and you've identified 30 keywords for the campaign. You'd like to use a Google tool
to help you identify additional keywords through synonyms and different spellings.
What Google AdWords tool would you use?
A. Keyword Tool Supercharger
B. Google Analytics
C. Keyword Tool
D. AdWords Editor
Answer: C

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NO.7 You are trying to determine the return on investment for a Google AdWords campaign for a client.
Which of the following is the correct formula for finding the return on investment for Google AdWords.?
A. (Revenue from sales - Advertising costs)/Revenue from Sales
B. (Revenue from sales - Advertising costs)/Duration of Ad
C. (Revenue from sales - Advertising costs)/Advertising costs
D. (Revenue from sales - Advertising costs)
Answer: C

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NO.8 You are configuring goals for a large complex website. How many goals can you create for each website
profile in Google Analytics?
A. 20
B. 100
C. 50
D. 10
Answer: A

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NO.9 You are a Google AdWords consultant to a company that sells magic tricks, stage props, and costumes
for theatres. Their website is robust, full of good articles and keywords, and
wellorganized.
As their new Google AdWords consultant, which one of the following AdWords strategies would you
recommend for their different lines of products?
A. Create separate campaigns for product line: one for magic tricks, one for stage props, and one for
costumes.
B. Create one campaign for all of their products to maximize ad exposure.
C. Create a campaign based on their products and use placements to target their audience.
D. Create keywords that are specific to purchasing magic tricks, stage props, or costumes.
Answer: A

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NO.10 How is an ad's Clickthrough rate calculated?
A. It's the number of clicks an ad receives divided by the number of impressions.
B. It's the number of clicks an ad receives from anywhere in the Google Search or Google Content
Network.
C. It's the total number of clicks an ad receives from the Google Content Network.
D. It's the number of clicks an ad receives divided by the cost of each click.
Answer: A

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NO.11 You are a Google AdWords consultant for your client and you're helping them optimize their Google
AdWords ads to increase their return on investment. Google recommend three optimization approaches
to increase return on investment. Which of the following is NOT an activity that you should do to improve
ROI for your client's ads?
A. Define a clear call-to-action
B. Filter out unqualified clicks
C. Relate ads to their landing pages
D. Include deals and benefits
Answer: D

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NO.12 In Google AdWords there are two places where you can see the information for the Placement
Performance Report. The first is through the Reporting tab and the actual Placement Performance report.
Where else can you see the information in the Placement Performance Report in Google AdWords?
A. You can have the report emailed to you in .csv format.
B. You can see the details on your Keywords tab.
C. You can see the details on your Account Performance Tab.
D. You can see the details on the Networks tab.
Answer: D

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NO.13 Doug is a Google AdWords consultant to a client who is using conversion tracking. The client's goal is
to bring web visitors to his website, and to get the clients sign up for a free newsletter. The client does not
sell a product or service as a result of the conversion, but only the free newsletter is offered. The client
has asked Doug to calculate the return on investment, for the conversions that have been made as a
result of the Google AdWords campaign. If the client is not selling a product or service, how can Doug find
the return on investment?
A. Doug would need to know the value of the newsletter.
B. Doug needs to know the product cost of the client, to find the return on investment.
C. You can't track the ROI if there's nothing for sale as a result of the conversion.
D. Doug needs to know what the final cost of the newsletter would be.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Holly is creating a new custom report in Google Analytics. When Holly creates a new report how many
dimensions can she include in the report?
A. Seven
B. One
C. Five
D. Ten
Answer: C

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NO.15 Mark is configured Google Analytics for his blog. Mark does not sell any products on his blog as he
uses it to market his public speaking business. Mark would, however, like to assign a dollar value for
customers that complete the 'contact me' field on his website to track return on investment for the
marketing he has done to bring people to the site. If Mark considers each lead worth $50 what field in the
configuration of the goals in Google Analytics would Mark add the $50 value to?
A. Mark does not have an e-commerce enabled website he would not be able to track dollar amounts
through Google Analytics.
B. Mark can enter 2500 in the 'metric goal' field in the Google Analytics configuration and then choose
"dollars" in the currency value.
C. Mark can simply enter $25 in the 'goal value' field in the Google Analytics configuration of the goal he
has created for the 'contact me' form on his website.
D. Mark does not have an e-commerce enabled website but he can enter 25 in the "goal
completion" field and know the points are actually $25 towards his ROI.
Answer: C

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NO.16 When you configure a new action for Google AdWords conversion tracking, there is a customized field
called "other" and four other tracking purpose fields. Which of the following is not a valid tracking purpose
for conversion tracking?
A. Download
B. Signup
C. View of a key page
D. Purchase/Sale
Answer: A

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NO.17 You are exploring Google Analytics for a website you have created. In Google Analytics, you would like
to configure the dashboard's graph to look like the one in the figure below. What are the appropriate steps
to create this graph measuring total visits and new visits for your website?
A. From the Dashboard, click the Graph Mode drop-down menu, choose "Compare Two Metrics," and
then choose Visits and % New Visits.
B. From the Dashboard, click the Graph Mode drop-down menu, choose "Compare Two Metrics," and
then choose Visitors and % New Visitors.
C. From the Dashboard, click the Graph Mode drop-down menu, choose "Multiple Metrics," and then
choose Visitors and % New Visitors.
D. From the Dashboard, click the Graph Mode drop-down menu, choose "Multiple Metrics," and then
choose Visits and % New Visits.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Joan is about to enroll in the Google AdWords for her travel agency for her European business. She
wants to target clients throughout Europe using English, Spanish, French, and Flemish ads.
Which of the following is the best advice you could offer Joan about Google AdWords, to target multiple
languages?
A. Create four ads - one for each language.
B. Create four ad groups - one for each language.
C. Create four campaigns - one for each language.
D. Use English only, as it's the most common of the four languages she's targeting.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Jane is using Google AdWords and she's receiving a moderate return on investment for budget. Jane
would like to use a targeting tool to help her improve her Google AdWords program. Which of the
following is a target tool that will help Jane to increase her ROI for her Google AdWords?
A. Conversion Tracking
B. Google Analytics
C. Keyword Tool
D. Traffic Estimator
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between Google AdWords and the
quality score?
A. The higher a keyword's Quality Score, the lower the price you pay for each click and the better its ad
position.
B. The lower a keyword's Quality Score, the lower the price you pay for each click and the better its ad
position.
C. The higher a keyword's Quality Score, the better its ad position.
D. The higher a keyword's Quality Score, the higher the price you pay for each click and the better its ad
position.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 9A0-144
Nom d'Examen: Adobe (Adobe Illustrator CS5 ACE Exam)
Questions et réponses: 119 Q&As

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NO.1 Which settings or command allows you to view a pixel grid when you are creating web graphics?
A. Pixel Preview on, Zoom set above 600%
B. Pixel Preview on, Zoom set above 100%
C. Pixel Preview on, Full Screen Mode
D. Choose View > Show Grid
Answer: A

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NO.2 To see more of your document when working, you want to hide all panels except the Tools panel. What
should you do?
A. Choose Window > Arrange > Float in Window.
B. Click the Change Screen Mode button at the bottom of the Tools panel to toggle to Full Screen Mode
C. Press the Tab key.
D. Press Shift+Tab.
Answer: D

Adobe   9A0-144   9A0-144

NO.3 You have created a nested artboard in a multiple artboard document. Which two file formats will enable
you to save or export each artboard into an individual file? (Choose two.)
A. Adobe Illustrator (ai)
B. SVG (svg)
C. BMP (bmp)
D. Adobe FXG (fxg)
E. Photoshop (psd)
F. Windows Metafile (wmf)
Answer: A,E

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NO.4 You want to print a document with trim marks and a bleed value of 0.1875 inches. You choose File >
Print. What should you do to prevent printer marks from being visible in the bleed area?
A. Set the value for all bleeds to a value above 0.1875 inch.
B. Deselect Auto-Rotate and choose Tile in the Options area.
C. Enter a value of 0.1875 inch for all bleed settings and the Offset setting.
D. Select the Use Document Bleed Settings option, and deselect Color Bars and Page Information.
Answer: C

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NO.5 You have saved a custom Keyboard Shortcut set. How can you see a list of all the keyboard shortcuts,
including your modified ones?
A. Open the Illustrator Defaults.kys file inside the Illustrator application folder in a text editor.
B. Choose Edit > Keyboard Shortcuts, and then click the Export Text button.
C. Choose Edit > Keyboard Shortcuts, and then click the Save button.
D. Type Keyboard Shortcuts in the Search field on the Help menu.
Answer: B

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NO.6 You want to use the Shift key plus any arrow keys to nudge objects 1 pica. There are 12 points in a pica.
Which value should you enter in the Keyboard Increment field in the general preference?
A. 12 pt
B. 1.2 pt
C. 120 pt
D. 0.12 pt
Answer: B

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NO.7 Where does the new artboard appear when you create it using the New Artboard button in the Artboard
panel.?
A. To the left of all current artboards
B. To the right of all current artboards
C. Below all curent artboards
D. Above all curent artboards
Answer: B

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NO.8 You want to add some guides that will be visible only inside a particular artboard. What should you do?
A. Select the Artboard tool from the Tools panel, click on the artboard, and then drag guides out from the
horizontal or vertical document ruler.
B. Select the artboard name in the Artboard panel, and then drag a guide out from the horizontal or
vertical document ruler.
C. Click on the artboard with the Selection tool, and then Option+double-click (Mac OS) or
Alt+double-click (Windows) on the horizontal or vertical ruler.
D. Drag a guide from the horizontal or vertical document ruler, and hold down the Option (Mac OS) or Alt
(Windows) key before letting go of the mouse button.
Answer: A

Adobe   9A0-144 examen   9A0-144

NO.9 Using the Layers panel, you want to move objects that are selected from one layer to a locked layer by
dragging the Selected Art icon to the target layer. Which key combination should you use?
A. Command+Option-drag (Mac OS) or Ctrl+Alt-drag (Windows)
B. Shift-drag
C. Command-drag (Mac OS) or Ctrl-drag (Windows)
D. Option-drag (Mac OS) or Alt-drag (Windows)
Answer: C

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NO.10 You are working a large poster. The poster will be printed on six tiled pages, each defined by an
artboard. The artboards have been arranged with no space between them. You want to position objects
based on the upper-left corner of the upper-left artboard. Which rulers should you use?
A. Artboard
B. Global
C. Video
D. Perspective Grid
Answer: B

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NO.11 You draw a path that contains a nonsymmetrical curved anchor point. You now want to alter the Bezier
handles of the anchor point so both sides of the curve are identical in length and angle. You are using the
Pen tool on the selected path. What should you do?
A. Press Option (Mac OS) / Alt (Windows) and drag the anchor point.
B. Shift-click the anchor point.
C. Double-click the anchor point.
D. Click on the anchor point while pressing the Option (Mac OS) / Alt (Windows) key.
Answer: A

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NO.12 You want to add metadata information to the file you are working on. Which command should you
choose?
A. Window > Document Info
B. Window > Info
C. File > File Info
D. File > Document Setup
Answer: C

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NO.13 How can you view three separate document windows side by side?
A. Choose Tile All Vertically from the Arrange Document menu in the Application bar.
B. Choose Window > Arrange > Cascade.
C. Choose > Tile All In Grid from the Arrange Document menu in the Application bar.
D. Choose Window > Arrange > Float All in Windows.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which profile in the New Document dialog box has the following default settings?
RGB, 72 PPI document with Align to Pixel Grid disabled
Measurement units set to Pixels
Page orientation set to Portrait
A. Mobile and Devices
B. Web
C. Basic RGB
D. Flash Catalyst
Answer: A

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NO.15 You have created several additional artboards while working on a document. You want to position all of
the artboards in a more logical manner within your document. What should you do?
A. Click and drag the artboards in the Artboard panel so they appear in the order you want.
B. Double-click the Artboard tool, and adjust the 9-point registration box under the Position field in the
Artboard Options dialog box.
C. Choose Object > Artboards > Rearrange.
D. Choose Artboard Options from the Artboard panel menu.
Answer: C

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